NURS 6052N QUIZ 9

NURS 6052N QUIZ 9

NURS 6052N QUIZ 9
 
Question 1
A 28-year-old woman has completed rituximab therapy for an autoimmune disease. She tells the nurse that she and her husband would like to start a family. The nurse will advise her to
Response Feedback:
Rituximab is not recommended for use in pregnancy or when women are lactating. The patient should consequently be advised to continue using birth control for the duration of treatment.
Question 2
A nurse on an oncology unit is aware of the need to assess for adverse effects in patients who are being treated with rituximab. The risks of adverse effects are highest at what point during the course of treatment?
Response Feedback:
Infusion-related effects reportedly occur in 80% of patients within 30 minutes to 2 hours after beginning the first rituximab infusion. These exceed the incidence of adverse effects at other points in the course of treatment.
Question 3
A patient will soon begin targeted therapy as a component of her treatment plan for chronic leukemia. The nurse is conducting health education about this new aspect of the patient’s drug regimen and the patient has asked about the potential side effects of treatment. How should the nurse best respond?
Response Feedback:
Targeted therapies are generally considered to be less toxic than traditional chemotherapy drugs. However, adverse reactions to targeted therapies can occur such as severe skin reactions, GI toxicities, skin reactions, and thrombosis.
Question 4
A female patient is taking filgrastim (Neupogen) to decrease the incidence of infection. The nurse notices a small increase in the neutrophil count 2 days after starting therapy. The nurse’s evaluation of the increase is that
Response Feedback:
A small increase in the neutrophil count 1 or 2 days after starting therapy indicates only a transient increase and does not indicate the full therapeutic effects of the drug. It indicates neither slow action nor ineffectiveness of the drug.
Question 5
A male patient has been on long-term bicalutamide (Casodex) therapy. In order to assess adverse effects of the drug therapy, the nurse will closely monitor which of the following?
Response Feedback:
It is important for the nurse to monitor the patient’s liver function closely if the patient is on prolonged therapy with an antiandrogenic agent. Adverse effects of the therapy include gynecomastia, diarrhea, hot flashes, breast pain, impotence, loss of libido, and abnormal liver functions. Monitoring of blood counts, an annual pap smear, and regular visual function tests are advised for patients undergoing tamoxifen therapy.
Question 6
Mr. Lepp is a 63-year-old man who was diagnosed with colon cancer several weeks ago and who is scheduled to begin chemotherapy. He reports to the nurse that he read about the need for erythropoietin in an online forum for cancer patients and wants to explore the use of epoetin alfa with his oncologist. Which of the following facts should underlie the nurse’s response to Mr. Lepp?
Response Feedback:
In patients with cancer, epoetin alfa should only be used when anemia is due to concomitant myelosuppressive chemotherapy and should be discontinued when the chemotherapy course is completed. The use of epoetin alfa during cancer may shorten survival and/or increase the risk of tumor progression or recurrence. Patients with cancer are also at risk for serious cardiovascular and thrombovascular events. Consequently, the benefits of treatment must be considered in light of these potentially adverse effects.

NURS 6640 FINAL

NURS 6640 FINAL EXAM 2

NURS 6640 FINAL EXAM 2
 
Question 1
A PMHNP is using Gestalt therapy to communicate with a 50-year-old patient who is going through a divorce. As he is calmly sharing the details of his divorce, the PMHNP notices that Dave is tapping his fingers on his legs. What is an appropriate response by the PMHNP using the technique of focusing?
Selected Answer:
A.
“I noticed that your fingers were tapping. Can you give a voice to your fingers?”
Question 2
A 25-year-old female states, “I really need to lose weight. I know I’m the cause of our problems, if I could just lose weight he might be more attracted to me. Then we could start a family and we would be happy. I’m sure of it, right, we would definitely be happy!” Which statement shows the PMHNP’s ability to apply “summarizing”?
Selected Answer:
C.
“You have identified your weight as a problem in your marriage and but believe that losing weight will gain happiness.”
Question 3
As part of the PMHNP’s role in the clinic, the PMHNP oversees students that gain clinical experience at the agency. The student is instructed to use the supportive psychodynamic therapy approach with the patient. Which action made by the student causes the PMHNP to intervene, after observing the student interacting with the patient?
Selected Answer:
A.
Focusing too heavily on defenses
Question 4
A PMHNP is using motivational interviewing (MI) with a 50-year-old patient named Dave to commit to a healthy drug-free lifestyle. By using “change talk,” the PMHNP hopes to help the patient build self-esteem and hope.
True or false: If Dave is resisting change, the PMHNP should challenge his resistance in order for MI to be successful.
Selected Answer:
False
Question 5
The PMHNP is actively listening to Ms. Thomas who is detoxing from alcohol. Ms. Thomas is currently discussing with the PMHNP the reasons why she feels guilty about her drinking. Ms. Thomas tearfully states, “I have driven my family and friends away with this terrible habit. I have no one left. I had more than enough chances and now my children won’t even talk to me.” Which of the following statements demonstrate a simple reflection?
Selected Answer:
D.
All the above.
Question 6
A PMHNP is using Gestalt therapy to communicate with a 42-year-old patient who is upset with her mother. She says, “I want to tell her how hurt I feel when she doesn’t call me, but I don’t want to upset her.” What technique can the PMHNP use to help Sasha express herself?
Selected Answer:
B.
Empty-chair dialogue
Question 7
The PMHNP is meeting with an older, female adult patient and her daughter. The patient has early onset dementia. The daughter expresses concern, saying, “I don’t want you to just stick my mother in a home and give her medicine. I’m worried that’s what people are going to want to do.” What is the best response by the PMHNP to the daughter?
Selected Answer:
B.
“The type of treatment depends on the stage of dementia and safety considerations.”
Question 8
The PMHNP meets with a 31-year-old woman who reports feeling as though she is “at her breaking point” with work. The PMHNP learns that the woman works 12-hour days, including one day on the weekend, because she is nervous about company layoffs. “I feel like I need to work myself to death in order to prove that I am valuable to the organization,” the woman says. Using the supportive psychodynamic therapy approach, how does the PMHNP respond?
Selected Answer:
D.
“That must be a very tiring work schedule. How do you feel about working so much?”
Question 9
When preparing to terminate a patient, what does the PMHNP do to organize thoughts about the patient’s progress made during treatment?
Selected Answer:
B.
Reviews the patient’s file to identify issues and important themes that were highlighted throughout treatment.

NURS 6640 FINAL EXAM 3

NURS 6640 FINAL EXAM 3

NURS 6640 FINAL EXAM 3

Question 1
A PMHNP has been treating a 9-year-old patient who was referred by her school. Students are asked to raise their hands before speaking during group discussion, but the patient seems to blurt out what she wants to say without being called on. She also interrupts other children while they are talking instead of waiting her turn. When the patient gets frustrated, she has trouble controlling her emotions and cries often. Based on the initial information provided, the first focus by PMHNP is the child’s ____________.
B.
self-regulation
Question 2
The PMHNP is caring for a patient who experiences depression caused by the traumatic experience of her dog passing away. She reports not being able to eat or sleep, and sometimes doesn’t want to leave the house at all. Which statement is most appropriate for the PMHNP to maximize the patient’s adaptive coping mechanisms?
Selected Answer:
C. “It’s important to be mindful of how you feel and then to determine what causes those feelings.”
Question 3
A PMHNP is using Gestalt therapy to communicate with a 50-year-old patient who is going through a divorce. As he is calmly sharing the details of his divorce, the PMHNP notices that Dave is tapping his fingers on his legs. What is an appropriate response by the PMHNP using the technique of focusing?
A. “I noticed that your fingers were tapping. Can you give a voice to your fingers?”
Question 4
The PMHNP is meeting with an older, female adult patient and her daughter. The patient has early onset dementia. The daughter expresses concern, saying, “I don’t want you to just stick my mother in a home and give her medicine. I’m worried that’s what people are going to want to do.” What is the best response by the PMHNP to the daughter?
B. “The type of treatment depends on the stage of dementia and safety considerations.”
Question 5
A PMHNP is treating a 10-year-old boy who is exhibiting signs of aggression and attention problems. What type of intervention will the PMHNP consider using a common elements approach?
D. All of the above
Question 6
A 35-year-old male patient is being treated for alcohol addiction. He asks for the PMHNP’s cell phone number to use in case of an emergency. When the PMHNP responds that giving her number would be against therapeutic rules, the patient threatens an act of violence to the therapist. What would be the most appropriate response by the PMHNP?
Selected Answer:
A. Immediately report the threat to the local police department
Question 7
The PMHNP is caring for an adult male patient whose wife left him several months ago. He recently learned that his ex-wife is dating someone much younger. The man feels belittled, sad, and lonely. He talks about trying to meet other women, but says, “I can’t compete with the younger guys these days, with the cool clothes and the vegan diets. I’m bald and overweight, and what woman is going to want to be with me?” How does the PMHNP help raise the man’s self-esteem?
Selected Answer:
A. Correcting cognitive distortions
Question 8
1 out of 1 points
The PMHNP uses therapeutic communication skills while ensuring that the patient understands that he has choices. The PMHNP comprehends and practices motivational interviewing. This is best understood as which of the following?
B. A statement that both challenges the patient’s resistance and offers an opportunity to discuss the issues allows the patient to argue with him/herself to help produce a desired change.

NURS6501 Week 11 Quiz Latest

NURS6501 Week 11 Quiz Latest

NURS6501 Week 11 Quiz Latest

NURS6501 Advanced Pathophysiology Week 11 Quiz 
Question 1 for academic integrity?
Question 2_____ is inflammation of the glans penis.
Question 3A 35-year-old female is diagnosed with ovarian cancer. CT scan reveals that the cancer is limited to the ovaries. It would be classified as stage:
Question 4A nurse is discussing female anatomy. Which body structure contains the openings to the vagina and urinary meatus?
Question 5A 35-year-old nonpregnant female presents complaining of breast discharge. She is diagnosed with galactorrhea. The condition is most likely caused by:
Question 6An example of a parasitic STI that is transmitted through close skin-to-skin contact is:
Question 7A 68-year-old male presents complaining of difficulty having sexual intercourse. He reports that his penis curves during erection. This condition is referred to as:
Question 8A 25-year-old sexually active female presents with urethritis, dysuria, and cervical discharge. She is diagnosed with the most common bacteria STI in the United States. The student would identify this infection is due to:
Question 9A nurse is teaching the staff about female hormones. Which hormone promotes the formation of channels in the mucus of the cervical os to facilitate sperm movement into the uterus?
Question 10Copy of A 25-year-old female presents with amenorrhea and hirsutism. She is diagnosed with PCOS. Lab testing will most likely reveal:
Question 11When the nurse is teaching about the menstrual cycle, which information should be included? Menstruation is followed by the _____ phase of the menstrual cycle.
Question 12When a breastfeeding mom asks what causes letdown, which information should the nurse give the patient? The hormone that plays a role in breast milk ejection (letdown) during lactation is:
Question 13A student asks the instructor which of the following hormones stimulates follicular maturation. How should the instructor respond?
Question 14In the majority of cases delayed puberty is due to:
Question 15A 35-year-old female presents with infertility and gradual blindness. She reports that she has otherwise been healthy. History reveals that she was promiscuous and had unprotected sexual intercourse several times when she was younger. She now has neurological involvement. Which of the following sexually transmitted infection (STI) does she most likely have?
Question 16An 18-year-old female is diagnosed with dysmenorrhea. Which of the following symptoms will she most likely experience?
Question 17While speaking to a group of older males, which information should the nurse share? The following is a normal characteristic of aging and the male reproductive system:
Question 18Changes in the cervical mucus can be used to identify the periods in which a female is most fertile. How should the nurse describe cervical mucus during ovulation?
Question 19A patient asks the nurse what is the most sensitive area of the penis. What is the nurse’s best answer? The area of the penis with the most nerve endings is the:
Question 20While preparing to teach the staff about female anatomy, which information should be included? During the years that a woman is more likely to be sexually active, the vagina mucosa is protected from infection by:
Question 21The nurse would anticipate the treatment for pelvic organ prolapse to be:
Question 22What term should the nurse use when discussing male sex hormones collectively?
Question 23Which of the following signs is usually the first clinical manifestation of breast cancer?
Question 24A 30-year-old male presents with penile tenderness and discharge. Physical examination reveals that his foreskin cannot be retracted back over the glans penis. He is suffering from:
Question 25A middle-aged male speaks to his physician about benign BPH. He reveals that his father was recently diagnosed with this condition, and he wants to know if he could have it. The physician tells him that a common complaint from men with mild to moderate BPH is:
Question 26A 21-year-old male presents with inflammation of the testes. He has a high fever and edema and redness of the testes. Which organism is the most likely the cause of his symptoms?
Question 27A 30-year-old female with newly diagnosed PCOS is being counseled by her OB-GYN. The physician indicates that this condition often results in:
Question 28A 40-year-old male is concerned about the possibility of developing prostate cancer. He reports that his father died of prostate cancer, and he wants to take all preventive measures. He is told to consume a diet low in:
Question 29A 19-year-old female presents with genital warts. Which of the following would cause this condition?
Question 30A 20-year-old female presents with pelvic and back pain severe enough to miss work. She reports that the pain occurs with the onset of menses. Physical examination fails to find pelvic pathology. The most likely cause of her condition is:
Question 31When a staff member asks the nurse what the thick middle layer of the uterine wall is called, what is the nurse’s best response? The:
Question 32When a patient who is trying to get pregnant asks where the usual site of fertilization is, how should the nurse respond? The:
Question 33A 40-year-old female presents with cramping and excessive vaginal bleeding. Ultrasound reveals benign uterine tumors in the smooth muscle cells of the myometrium. These tumors are commonly called:
Question 34A syndrome often associated with cystocele is:
Question 35When a staff member asks which structure secretes glucose-rich fluid into the semen, how should the nurse respond?
Question 36A nursing student asks the nurse where the glands of Montgomery are located. How should the nurse reply? The glands of Montgomery are located in the:
Question 37The most commonly occurring cancer of the female reproductive tract is _____ cancer.
Question 38The patient’s medication has a side effect of gynecomastia. The patient asks the nurse to define this term. The nurse would respond that gynecomastia is:
Question 39Cryptorchidism can be defined as:
Question 40A 56-year-old female is in menopause. She has ovarian failure. While checking the lab results, which of the following will the nurse find?
Question 41When the nurse describes the duct that carries the ovum from the ovary to the uterus, what is the nurse discussing?

NURS6501 Week 7 Quiz Latest

NURS6501 Week 7 Quiz Latest

NURS6501 Week 7 Quiz Latest

NURS6501 Advanced Pathophysiology Week 7 Quiz 
Question 1 A nurse checks individuals with liver disease for clotting problems because:
Question 2How should the nurse prepare a patient who is to receive a Schilling test for pernicious anemia?
Question 3A 58-year-old female presents in the clinic presenting with fatigue, weight loss, and tingling in her fingers. Laboratory findings show low hemoglobin and hematocrit, a high mean corpuscular volume, and normal plasma iron. These assessment findings are consistent with which type of anemia?
Question 4A 34-year-old male presents in the emergency room with extreme fatigue and shortness of breath. His skin and sclera appear to have a yellowish discoloration. These assessment findings are consistent with which type of anemia?
Question 5A 50-year-old female is diagnosed with primary thrombocythemia. A nurse would expect the blood smear to reveal _____ platelets.
Question 6A 10-year-old male presents with abdominal swelling, night sweats, fever, and weight loss. He is diagnosed with Burkitt lymphoma. Upon obtaining the history, which of the following is the most likely cause?
Question 7A nurse is caring for a patient who cannot clot. Which end product of the clotting cascade is this patient unable to make?
Question 8A 10-year-old male is diagnosed with sickle cell anemia. When the parents ask who is responsible for this disease, what is the nurse’s best response? He most likely inherited it from:
Question 9A 25-year-old female has a heavy menses during which she loses a profuse amount of blood. Which of the following adaptations should the nurse expect?
Question 10For a patient experiencing hypersplenism, the nurse expects the erythrocytes to be:
Question 11A 20-year-old female undergoes lab testing for anemia. Results show high iron, bilirubin, and transferrin and low hemoglobin and hematocrit. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis to be documented on the chart?
Question 12A newborn baby is diagnosed with a blood disorder in which her platelet count is low. Which of the following does the nurse suspect could be the reason?
Question 13A 10-year-old male is diagnosed with leukemia. The nurse assesses for which other condition that could be associated with his disease?
Question 14A 45-year-old female undergoes a splenectomy to remove a tumor. Which of the following assessment finding is most likely to occur following surgery?
Question 15A 40-year-old male vegetarian is diagnosed with folate deficiency anemia. He reports that he is an alcoholic. Which of the following factors put him at greatest risk for developing his disease?
Question 16A 52-year-old male IV drug user was diagnosed with hepatitis C 5 years ago. He is now experiencing impaired blood clotting. The nurse suspects a decrease in which of the following vitamins?
Question 17A staff member wants to know where the greatest proportion of iron is located. How should the nurse respond? The greatest proportion of total body iron is located in the:
Question 18While checking lab results, the nurse remembers the normal leukocyte count is:
Question 19While reviewing lab results, the nurse recalls the most abundant cells in the blood are:
Question 20A 5-year-old male was diagnosed with normocytic-normochromic anemia. Which of the following anemias does the nurse suspect the patient has?
Question 21A 60-year-old female emphysema patient experiences a rapid and pounding heart, dizziness, and fatigue with exertion. Which of the following respiratory assessment findings indicate the respiratory system is compensating for the increased oxygen demand?
Question 22A 67-year-old female has chronic gastrointestinal bleeding. A nurse recalls the primary cause of her anemia is:
Question 23Which major symptom in a patient with sickle cell anemia indicates to the nurse, the patient is experiencing a vaso-occlusive crisis?
Question 24After initial compensation, what hemodynamic change should the nurse monitor for in a patient who has a reduction in the number of circulating erythrocytes?
Question 25The people from which country have the lowest risk for Hodgkin lymphoma?
Question 26Thrombocytopenia may be:
Question 27A 5-year-old female is diagnosed with acute leukemia. The nurse will most likely treat this patient with:
Question 28A hematologist is discussing hematopoiesis. Which information should be included? ________ participate in hematopoiesis.
Question 29An adult patient’s blood sample is analyzed in a laboratory. Assuming a normal sample, which type of white blood cell accounts for the highest percentage?
Question 30A 45-year-old male is diagnosed with macrocytic, normochromic anemia. The nurse suspects the most likely cause of this condition is:
Question 31A group of cells isolated in the laboratory have membrane-bound granules in their cytoplasm and they show phagocytic activity. Which of the following cells is most similar?
Question 32A 65-year-old male experienced loss of appetite, weight loss, lemon-yellow skin, liver enlargement, and a beefy red tongue shortly before his death. Autopsy suggested pernicious anemia, and the cause of death would most likely reveal:
Question 33The nurse will check which of the following tests to directly measure iron stores?
Question 34A nurse is teaching the staff about platelets. Which information should the nurse include? In addition to playing a role in hemostasis, platelets have the ability to:
Question 35A newborn is diagnosed with congenital intrinsic factor deficiency. Which of the following types of anemia will the nurse see documented on the chart?
Question 36When completing this quiz, did you comply with Walden University’s Code of Conduct including the expectations for academic integrity?

NURS6501 Week 10 Quiz Latest

NURS6501 Week 10 Quiz Latest

NURS6501 Week 10 Quiz.

NURS6501 Advanced Pathophysiology Week 10 Quiz 
Question 1When completing this quiz, did you comply with Walden University’s Code of Conduct including the expectations for academic integrity?
Question 2A 7-year-old male presents to his primary care provider for incontinence. His mother indicates that he has never been continent. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis the nurse will observe on the chart?
Question 3A nurse is describing the trigone. Which information should be included? The trigone is defined as:
Question 4A 4-year-old male is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome. Which of the following assessment findings accompanies this condition?
Question 5On average the kidneys receive approximately _____ of the cardiac output.
Question 6While planning care for a patient who has acute pyelonephritis. A nurse recalls the most common condition associated with the development of acute pyelonephritis is:
Question 7A 30-year-old male is demonstrating hematuria with red blood cell casts and proteinuria exceeding 3 to 5 g/day, with albumin being the major protein. The most probable diagnosis the nurse will see documented on the chart is:
Question 8A 42-year-old female is diagnosed with chronic renal failure, and the nurse is discussing dietary treatment. Which information indicates the nurse understands dietary regimen? Treatment includes restricting:
Question 9A 5-year-old male was diagnosed with glomerulonephritis. History reveals that he had an infection 3 weeks before the onset of this condition. The infection was most likely located in the:
Question 10A 56-year-old male presents with flank pain and polyuria. Tests reveal that he has an enlarged prostate. Which of the following types of renal failure should the nurse monitor for as it is the most likely to occur?
Question 11While turning a patient with chronic renal failure, which principle should the nurse recall? Bone fractures are a risk factor in chronic renal failure because:
Question 12A 25-year-old female is diagnosed with urinary tract obstruction. While planning care, the nurse realizes that the patient is expected to have hydronephrosis and a decreased glomerular filtration rate caused by:
Question 13When a nurse is preparing to teach about urine, which information should the nurse include? Just before entering the ureter, urine passes through the:
Question 14A 19-year-old female was involved in a motor vehicle accident during which she sustained a closed head injury. She is now experiencing detrusor sphincter dyssynergia. Which of the following is the most beneficial medication treatment?
Question 15When describing the male urinary anatomy, which information should the nurse include? The portion of the male urethra that is closest to the bladder is the _____ portion.
Question 16A nurse is reviewing urinalysis results and notices glucose is present in the urine. A nurse realizes glucose will be excreted in the urine when:
Question 17A 42-year-old male is involved in a motor vehicle accident during which he loses a lot of blood. The nurse realizes he is in acute renal failure caused by:
Question 18If a nurse wants to obtain the best estimate of renal function, which test should the nurse monitor?
Question 19When a child is admitted with acute renal failure, a clinician realizes the most common cause of acute renal failure is:
Question 20When a patient’s renal system secretes rennin, what effect will that cause in the body? It causes the direct activation of:
Question 21A urologist is discussing the phagocytic cells that lie between the layers of the renal corpuscle. What is the urologist describing?
Question 22A 6-year-old male is experiencing urine reflux from the urinary bladder into a grossly dilated ureter and calyces. He was diagnosed with vesicoureteral reflux. This condition would be graded:
Question 23When a newborn is admitted with urinary tract infections (UTIs), which type of infection will the nurse look for in the newborn?
Question 24A 24-year-old female is diagnosed with renal calculus that is causing obstruction. Which of the following symptoms would she most likely experience?
Question 25A 60-year-old male is diagnosed with renal failure. While the nurse is reviewing lab results, which of the following lab values would be most consistent with this diagnosis?
Question 26Anemia accompanies chronic renal failure because of:
Question 27When a nurse is checking the urinalysis, plasma proteins should be absent from the urine because:
Question 28When the nurse is discussing the sodium-sensing cells of the glomerulus, what term should the nurse use?
Question 29A 3-year-old female presents with recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs), fever, poor growth and development, and feeding problems. Tests reveal a retrograde flow of urine from the urinary bladder into the ureters. When giving report to the oncoming shift, the nurse will call this condition:
Question 30The urologist is teaching about the nephrons that determine the concentration of the urine. The urologist is discussing the _____ nephrons.
Question 31A 30-year-old male is demonstrating hematuria with red blood cell casts and proteinuria exceeding 3 to 5 g/day, with albumin being the major protein. The most probable diagnosis the nurse will see documented on the chart is:
Question 32When the nurse discusses the glomerulus and Bowman capsule together, it is referred to as the renal:
Question 33While planning care for a patient with renal calculi, the nurse remembers the most important factor in renal calculus formation is:
Question 34A 29-year-old female presents with cloudy urine, flank pain, hematuria, and fever. Which of the following does the nurse suspect the patient is most likely experiencing?
Question 35Which of the following clusters of symptoms would make a clinician suspect a child has developed glomerulonephritis?
Question 36A 75-year-old male reports to his primary care provider loss of urine with cough, sneezing, or laughing. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis the nurse will observe on the chart?
Question 37A 45-year-old female presents with hypertension, anorexia, nausea and vomiting, and anemia. She is diagnosed with chronic renal failure. When the patient asks what caused this anemia, how should the nurse respond? Your anemia is caused by:
Question 38A 15-year-old male was diagnosed with pharyngitis. Eight days later he developed acute glomerulonephritis. While reviewing the culture results, which of the following is the most likely cause of this disease?
Question 39A 55-year-old male presents reporting urinary retention. Tests reveal that he has a lower urinary tract obstruction. Which of the following is of most concern to the nurse?
Question 40A 2-year-old male is diagnosed with Wilms tumor. Which of the following clinical conditions is often associated with this disease?
Question 41A 27-year-old male has a severe kidney obstruction leading to removal of the affected kidney. Which of the following would the nurse expect to occur?

NURS6501 Week 1 Quiz Latest

NURS6501 Week 1 Quiz Latest

NURS6501 Week 1 Quiz Latest

NURS6501 Advanced Pathophysiology Week 1 Quiz 
Question 1 When completing this quiz, did you comply with Walden University’s Code of Conduct including the expectations for academic integrity?
Question 255-year-old male has swelling of the feet. Which of the following aided in development of swelling?
Question 3The nurse is teaching staff about the most common cause of Down syndrome. What is the nurse describing?
Question 4A patient has severe mental retardation caused by a deletion of part of chromosome 5. What genetic disorder will the nurse see documented in the chart?
Question 5A nurse is teaching a patient with diabetes how glucose is transported from the blood to the cell. What type of transport system should the nurse discuss with the patient?
Question 6Sodium and water accumulation in an injured cell are a direct result of:
Question 7A patient wants to know the risk factors for Down syndrome. What is the nurse’s best response?
Question 8An aide asks the nurse why people who have neurofibromatosis will show varying degrees of the disease. Which genetic principle should the nurse explain to the aide?
Question 9When a patient asks what causes cystic fibrosis, how should the nurse respond? Cystic fibrosis is caused by an _____ gene.
Question 10During childhood, the thymus decreases in size, and this is referred to as _____ atrophy.
Question 11A nurse is discussing the movement of fluid across the arterial end of capillary membranes into the interstitial fluid surrounding the capillary. Which process of fluid movement is the nurse describing?
Question 12A nurse is reviewing the pedigree chart. When checking for a proband, what is the nurse looking for?
Question 13A newborn male is diagnosed with albinism based on skin, eye, and hair appearance. Which finding will support this diagnosis?
Question 14A patient who has diarrhea receives a hypertonic saline solution intravenously to replace the sodium and chloride lost in the stool. What effect will this fluid replacement have on cells?
Question 15Which of the following disorders is manifested primarily in males?
Question 16A patient has a heart attack that leads to progressive cell injury that causes cell death with severe cell swelling and breakdown of organelles. What term would the nurse use to define this process?
Question 17A runner has depleted all the oxygen available for muscle energy. Which of the following will facilitate his continued muscle performance?
Question 18The early dilation (swelling) of the cell’s endoplasmic reticulum results in:
Question 19After a geneticist talks to the patient about being a chromosomal mosaic, the patient asks the nurse what that means. How should the nurse respond? You may _____ genetic disease(s).
Question 20What causes the rapid change in the resting membrane potential that initiates an action potential?
Question 21A nurse is reading a chart and sees the term oncotic pressure. The nurse recalls that oncotic pressure (colloid osmotic pressure) is determined by:
Question 22A 50-year-old male was recently diagnosed with Huntington disease. Transmission of this disease is associated with:
Question 23A group of prison inmates developed tuberculosis following exposure to an infected inmate. On examination, tissues were soft and granular (like clumped cheese). Which of the following is the most likely cause?
Question 24A 55-year-old male with a 30-year history of smoking is examined for respiratory disturbance. Examination of his airway (bronchial) reveals that stratified squamous epithelial cells have replaced the normal columnar ciliated cells. This type of cellular adaptation is called:
Question 25A 12-year-old male is diagnosed with Klinefelter syndrome. His karyotype would reveal which of the following?
Question 26How are potassium and sodium transported across plasma membranes?

NURS6521 Week 7 Exam Latest

NURS6521 Week 7 Exam Latest

NURS6521 Week 7 Exam Latest

NURS6521 Advanced Pharmacology Week 7 Exam
Question 1A patient taking Metformin (Glucophage) is scheduled for a cardiac cath. The patient asks why he can’t take his metformin the day of the test. What is the most appropriate reply?
Answers:
Metformin interacts with the dye used in the test.  You can take the Metformin starting the day after the test.
You can develop lactic acidosis if you take metformin and are given dye.  You should have a serum creatinine drawn before restarting the medication.
The combination of metformin and the dye stimulates the liver to release insulin causing hypoglycemia.  You can restart the metformin 48 hours after the test.
Dye is a cytochrome system inducer that affects metformin.   You should wait 3 days before restarting the metform so you don’t develop a toxic level of the drug.
Question 2
A child is prescribed an inhaled corticosteroid agent to decrease respiratory inflammation related to exposure to an animal. The patient’s parent administers a higher than prescribe dose of the medication for 5 days. What should the APRN monitor the child for?
Answers:
tachycardia
adrenal insufficiency
hypokalemia
hypoglycemia
Question 3
Mr. Lacuna is an 83-year-old resident of a long-term care facility who has a diagnosis of moderate Alzheimer disease. Mr. Lacuna’s physician recently prescribed oral rivastigmine, but he was unable to tolerate the drug due to its gastrointestinal effects. As a result, he has been ordered the transdermal patch form of the medication. When administering this form of rivastigmine, the nurse should
Answers:
teach Mr. Lacuna about the importance of rotating sites when he applies the patch.
teach Mr. Lacuna’s family to apply a second patch if they notice an acute exacerbation of his confusion.
apply the patch to Mr. Lacuna’s back to reduce the chance that he will remove it.
apply the patch to a mucous membrane to facilitate complete absorption.
Question 4
A 53-year-old man has been treated for severe asthma for several years with prednisone. Recently, his physician initiated alternate-day therapy for him. The patient tells the nurse that he would rather take the medication every day to prevent confusion. Which of the following would be the best response by the nurse?
Answers:
“This schedule will be more convenient for you.”
“This schedule will enable you to lose weight.”
“This schedule will decrease the cost of your medication.”
“This schedule allows rest periods so that adverse effects are decreased but the anti-inflammatory effects continue.”
Question 5
John is a newly diagnosed diabetic that contacts the office  with complaints of severe nausea and vomiting.  What instructions should the APRN provide related to his insulin doses?
Answers:
I will call in a prescription for metformin for you to take in place of your insulin.
Monitor your blood sugar every 4  hours and take regular insulin based on the blood sugar reading.
Stop your insulin while you are not eating and restart it at half strength when you can keep liquids down.
There is no need to change your insulin dosage while sick.  Continue your regular doses
Question 6During a clinic visit, a patient complains of having frequent muscle cramps in her legs. The nurse’s assessment reveals that the patient has been taking over-the-counter laxatives for the past 7 years. The nurse informed the patient that prolonged use of laxatives
Answers:
may cause nutrient deficiencies.
may counter the therapeutic effect of other drugs.
causes acidic urine and urinary tract infections.
inhibits biotransformation of drugs.
Question 7
Which of the following statements best defines how a chemical becomes termed a drug?
Answers:
A chemical must have a proven therapeutic value or efficacy without severe toxicity or damaging properties to become a drug.
A chemical becomes a drug when it is introduced into the body to cause a change.
A chemical is considered a drug when the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approves its release to be marketed.
A chemical must have demonstrated therapeutic value to become a drug.
Question 8 The Nurse Practitioner’s assessment of a community-dwelling adult suggests that the client may have drug allergies that have not been previously documented. What statement by the client would confirm this?
Answers:
“I tend to get sick in the stomach when I take antibiotics.”
“I’ve been told that aspirin might have caused my stomach bleed a few years back.”
“I broke out in hives and got terribly itchy when I started a new prescription last year.”
“When I fell last year, the doctor said that it might have been because of my blood pressure pills.”
Question 9
A Nurse Practitioner is teaching an older adult patient about polypharmacy. Which of the following statements best describe this term?
Answers:
Taking more than one drug when the patient deems it necessary
Taking several drugs simultaneously
Increasing the dosage of a drug by the patient
Taking one drug one day and another drug the next day
Question 10
A 33-year-old woman has irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). The physician has prescribed simethicone (Mylicon) for her discomfort. Which of the following will the nurse monitor most closely during the patient’s drug therapy?
Answers:
Drug toxicity
Anorexia
Increased abdominal pain and vomiting
Increased urine output
Question 11
Decongestants are recommended to use in which of the following patients?
Answers:
patients with otitis media
patients with coronary artery disease
patients taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors
patients with hypertension
Question 12
A 70-year-old woman with a history of atrial fibrillation takes digoxin and verapamil to control her health problem. Verapamil achieves a therapeutic effect by
Answers:
blocking adrenergic receptors and producing antisympathetic effects.
inhibiting the movement of calcium ions across the cardiac muscle cell membrane.
decreasing sodium and potassium conduction.
weakening diastolic depolarization and the action potential duration.
Question 13
Mrs. Houston is a 78-year-old woman who resides in an assisted living facility. Her doctor prescribed digoxin at her last visit to the clinic and she has approached the nurse who makes regular visits to the assisted-living facility about this new drug. What teaching point should the nurse emphasize to Mrs. Houston?
Answers:
The importance of having required laboratory work performed on time
The need to take the medication at the same time each day regardless of her heart rate
The  technique for using a home blood pressure cuff
Timing household activities to coincide with the administration times of her digoxin
Question 14
The Nurse Practitioner is treating a patient that takes frequent doses of antacids for his heartburn and is also taking an enteric coded aspirin.  What instructions should be provided to the patient?
Answers:
The aspirin is less effective when taken with an antacid so you need to increase the dose.
There is no effect of the antacid on the aspirin so they can be taken when it is convenient for you
The antacid destroys the aspirin so you should stop taking any antacids
The medications should be taken at least 2 hours apart.
Question 15
A patient has recently been prescribed a drug that treats his hypertension by blocking the sympathetic receptors in his sympathetic nervous system. This action is characteristic of
Answers:
an adrenergic antagonist.
an adrenergic agonist.
acardiotonic.
a neurotransmitter.
Question 16
In light of her recent high blood pressure readings, a patient has been started on a thiazide diuretic and metoprolol (Lopressor), which is a beta-adrenergic blocker. What is the most likely rationale for using two medications to address the patient’s hypertension?
Answers:
The adverse effects of each drug may cancel each other out.
Using two drugs for a health problem tends to increase patient compliance with the drug regimen.
Using lower doses of two separate drugs may lessen the risk of adverse reactions.
Using the two drugs to treat a health problem may create a synergistic effect.
Question 17
An elderly postsurgical patient has developed postoperative pneumonia in the days following abdominal surgery and is being treated with a number of medications. Which of the following medications that the nurse will administer has the slowest absorption?
Answers:
A sublingual benzodiazepine that has been prescribed to help the patient sleep
An intravenous (IV) antibiotic that is being administered by IV piggyback at 150 mL/hour
An oral antidepressant that the patient has been taking daily for several years
An intramuscular (IM) injection of an opioid analgesic
Question 18
A 79-year-old patient in a long-term care facility is to receive an intravenous fat emulsion. Which of the following lab values would be a priority for the nurse to assess before administration?
Answers:
Blood glucose levels
Serum potassium levels
Serum sodium levels
Triglyceride levels
Question 19
A woman has a long history of seasonal allergies that are typically accompanied by rhinorrhea, red eyes, and frequent sneezing. Sneezes are a result of
Answers:
a CNS reflex that is initiated by receptors in the nasal cavities.
a reflex that is caused when irritants come into contact with cilia.
elevated CO2 levels that are detected by chemoreceptors in the large vessels.
stimulation of goblet cells and mast cells by the presence of microorganisms.
Question 20
A Nurse Practitioner is providing discharge planning for a 45-year-old woman who has a prescription for oral albuterol. The Nurse Practitioner will question the patient about her intake of which of the following?
Alcohol
Answers:
Coffee
Alcohol
Salt
Vitamin C
Question 21
The nurse practitioner orders Amoxicillin 500 mg tid? What is the total amount of medication patient will take per day?
Answers:
500 mg
1000 mg
1500 mg
150 mg
Question 22
A Nurse Practitioner is caring for a 78-year-old patient with renal insufficiency and chronic heart failure who is receiving rapid infusions of high-dose furosemide. It will be a priority for the Nurse Practitioner to monitor for
Answers:
hepatic encephalopathy.
ototoxicity.
vascular thrombosis.
dehydration.
Question 23A 72-year-old man is prescribed theophylline for symptomatic relief of bronchial asthma. Which of the following findings would alert the nurse to the need for close monitoring?
Answers:
Enlarged prostate gland
Need for additional bronchodilation
Signs of an active lung infection
Hypersensitivity to povidone
Question 24
A patient with type 1 diabetes has been admitted to the hospital for orthopedic surgery and the care team anticipates some disruptions to the patient’s blood glucose levels in the days following surgery. Which of the following insulin regimens is most likely to achieve adequate glycemic control?
Answers:
Small doses of long-acting insulin administered four to five times daily
Doses of basal insulin twice daily with regular insulin before each meal
Large doses of rapid-acting insulin combined with long-acting insulin each morning and evening
Divided doses of intermediate-acting insulin every 2 hours, around the clock
Question 25A patient with seasonal allergies is exasperated by her recent nasal congestion and has expressed her desire to treat it by using pseudoephedrine. The nurse should inform the patient that
Answers:
under the Combat Methamphetamine Abuse Act, pseudoephedrine now requires a prescription.
drugs containing pseudoephedrine are available without a prescription but are kept off pharmacy shelves.
she must be prepared to show identification when buying a drug that contains pseudoephedrine.
pseudoephedrine is being phased out of the marketplace in order to combat illegal use.
Question 26
Mr. Penny, age 67, was diagnosed with chronic angina several months ago and has been unable to experience adequate relief of his symptoms. As a result, his physician has prescribed ranolazine (Ranexa). Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of ranolazine for the treatment of this patient’s angina?
Answers:
Ranolazine confers protection from myocardial infarction but does not relieve symptoms of angina.
Amlodipine will now be contraindicated in the treatment of Mr. Penny’s angina.
Mr. Penny will need to be taught to monitor his blood pressure and heart rate.
Mr. Penny requires concurrent treatment with a beta blocker, nitrate, or a calcium channel blocker.
Question 27
A Nurse Practitioner is caring for a patient who has recently moved from Vermont to south Florida. The patient has been on the same antihypertensive drug for 6 years and has had stable blood pressures and no adverse effects. Since her move, however, she reports “dizzy spells and weakness” and feels that the drug is no longer effective. The Nurse Practitioner suspects that the change in the effectiveness of the drug is related to
Answers:
the impact of the placebo effect on the patient’s response.
the accumulative effect of the drug if it has been taken for many years.
the impact of the warmer climate on the patient’s physical state.
problems with patient compliance with the drug regimen due to the move.
Question 28
Which of the following patients is most likely to benefit from the administration of an adrenergic agonist?
Answers:
A man who is in cardiogenic shock following a myocardial infarction
A man who has a diagnosis of primary hypertension
A woman who has been admitted with a suspected ischemic stroke
A woman who is in labor and may require a caesarean section
Question 29The parents of a 7-year-old boy who has just been diagnosed with allergic asthma are being taught about their son’s medication regimen by the nurse. The nurse is currently teaching the parent’s about the appropriate use of a “rescue drug” for acute exacerbations of their son’s asthma. What drug should the nurse suggests the parents to use in these situations?
Answers:
Theophylline
Albuterol
Beclomethasone
Acetylcysteine
Question 30A patient with unstable angina pectoris who is NOT controlled with a nitrate would likely benefit most from the addition of:
Answers:
1. Sodium channel blocker
2. Beta blocker
3. Cardiac glycoside
4. Either 1 or 2
Question 31A 62-year-old woman has been prescribed a fentanyl transdermal patch for chronic cancer pain. The patient asks the nurse how long it will take for her to experience pain relief. The nurse will instruct the patient that she should feel pain relief in approximately
Answers:
6 hours.
12 hours.
24 hours.
32 hours.
Question 32A patient with bronchial asthma is prescribed a sustained-release preparation of theophylline. To help minimize the adverse effects of the drug, which of the following should the nurse suggest?
Answers:
Take it on an empty stomach, 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals
Take it with a meal
Take it with foods containing xanthines, such as caffeine
Increase the drug dosage up to 50%
Question 33A patient is taking gabapentin (Neurontin) for spasticity associated with multiple sclerosis. Which of the following should be the priority for monitoring?
Answers:
Hepatic function
Cardiac function
Respiratory function
Renal function
Question 34A patient in need of myocardial infarction prophylaxis has been prescribed sulfinpyrazone for gout. Which of the following will the nurse monitor the patient most closely for?
Answers:
Hypothermia
Hypotension
Renal dysfunction
Bleeding
Question 35A patient has GERD and is taking ranitidine (Zantac). She continues to have gastric discomfort and asks whether she can take an antacid. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
Answers:
“Sure, you may take an antacid with ranitidine.”
“No, the two drugs will work against each other.”
“Yes, but be sure to wait at least 2 hours to take the antacid after you take the ranitidine.”
“I wouldn’t advise it. You may experience severe constipation.”
Question 36A patient who takes aluminum hydroxide with magnesium hydroxide (Mylanta) frequently for upset stomach, heartburn, and sour stomach is seen regularly in the clinic. The nurse should assess which of the following?
Answers:
Blood glucose level
Serum phosphate level
Urine specific gravity
Aspartate transaminase levels
Question 37A 67-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia. He reports to the nurse that he has chronic arthritis and circulation problems. Further assessment by the nurse reveals that the patient has a history of mild hypertension. He explains that he owns a business and lives alone. The nurse determines that he is within the normal weight range for his height and age but has a fondness for spicy foods and sweets. Which of the mentioned patient variables will have the greatest impact on the effectiveness of the patient’s drug therapy?
Answers:
Vascular impairment
Mild hypertension
Dietary habits
Chronic arthritis
Question 38An older adult who lives in a long-term care facility has recently begun taking losartan (Cozaar) for the treatment of hypertension. The nurse who provides care for this resident should recognize that this change in the resident’s medication regimen make create a risk for
Answers:
constipation.
falls.
xerostomia (dry mouth).
depression.
Question 39The APRN is caring for a patient taking a calcium channel blockers for hypertension.  The APRN should monitor the patient for what common side effects of this medication?
Answers:
peripheral edema, constipation, dizziness
hyperkalemia, dry cough, angioedema
bronchospasm, dry cough, angioedema
peripheral edema, dry cough, hypokalemia
Question 40A home health Nurse Practitioner is performing a home visit to an elderly client who has early-stage dementia. The Nurse Practitioner observes that some of the client’s pill bottles are empty, even though the client is not due for refills for 2 weeks. What nursing diagnosis should the Nurse Practitioner prioritize when planning this client’s care?
Answers:
Impaired Home Maintenance Management
Ineffective Coping
Knowledge Deficit
Ineffective Therapeutic Regimen Management
Question 41A Nurse Practitioner is discussing with a patient the efficacy of a drug that his physician has suggested, and he begin taking. Efficacy of a drug means which of the following?
Answers:
The amount of the drug that must be given to produce a particular response
How well a drug produces its desired effect
A drug’s strength of attraction for a receptor site
A drug’s ability to stimulate its receptor
Question 42You are seeing a 55 year old patient recently diagnosed with a bleeding ulcer. What should be the initial treatment choice for this patient?
Answers:
Sucralfate (Carafate)
A Proton Pump Inhibitor
An H2 Receptor Blocker
Lifestyle Modifications including smoking cessation
Question 43The APRN’s ability to prescribe controlled substances is regulated by:
Answers:
FDA
DEA
State Law
All of the above
Question 44
The lower respiratory system utilizes a number of different mechanisms that confer protection and maintain homeostasis. Which of the following physiological processes protects the lower respiratory system?
Answers:
Goblet cells throughout the lower airways produce phagocytes that trap particles and microorganisms.
The carina, where the trachea bifurcates into two bronchi, closes off the lower airway in response to noxious stimuli.
The alveoli produce positive pressure in order to expel particles that have been inhaled.
Cilia sweep foreign material and mucus upward toward the trachea and larynx where they can then be swallowed.
Question 45Which of the following serves to protect the public by ensuring the purity of a drug and its contents?
Answers:
American Pharmaceutical Association
United States Adopted Names Council
Nursing drug guides
Federal legislation
Question 46
A female patient has been taking zafirlukast for a week and is experiencing diarrhea. The nurse should instruct her to do which of the following?
Answers:
Take nonnarcotic analgesics
Schedule blood tests
Drink plenty of fluids
Take the drug with food
Question 47A 45-year-old man who is a construction worker has been diagnosed with hyperlipidemia and has been prescribed lovastatin. The nurse will advise the patient to
Answers:
use over-the-counter (OTC) drugs to treat any muscle cramps or pain.
drink moderate amounts of alcohol.
avoid prolonged exposure to sunlight.
change to another similar drug if lovastatin proves to be ineffective.
Question 48A 70-year-old woman has experienced peripheral edema and decreasing stamina in recent months and has sought care from her primary care provider. The patient’s subsequent diagnostic workup has resulted in a diagnosis of chronic heart failure. The woman has been prescribed digoxin and the nurse has begun patient education. What should the nurse teach the patient about her new medication?
Answers:
“By reducing the amount of fluid that your body contains, digoxin will make it easier for your heart to pump.”
“This will lessen the workload of your heart by reducing your blood pressure.”
“Most patients see their heart failure resolve in 2 to 4 months after they begin taking digoxin.”
“This drug won’t cure your disease, but it will help you be able to exercise more and be more comfortable.”
Question 49A 48-year-old woman who works as an office manager is prescribed metoclopramide (Reglan) for diabetic gastroparesis. The nurse will be sure to assess the patient for
Answers:
tachycardia.
depression.
hypotension.
anemia.
Question 50
A normal maintenance dose for digoxin is 0.125 to 0.5 mg/day. In which of the following patients would the nurse most likely administer a lower-than-normal maintenance dose of digoxin?
Answers:
A 25-year-old male with congestive heart failure and atrial fibrillation
A 32-year-old female with cardiomegaly
A 79-year-old male with cardiomegaly
A 42-year-old female with a third heart sound
Question 51
The most effective therapy for a patient  who is H. pylori positive with a gastric ulcer is:
Answers:
Cephalexin, Bismuth, Omeprazole, and Ranitidine
Bismuth, Metronidazole, Omeprazole, and Tetracycline
Amoxicillin, Cefzil, and omeprazole
Amoxicillin, Metronidazole, and Bismuth
Question 52
A patient has been prescribed a drug that can be self-administered at home. Which of the following would be the most important information for the nurse to relate to the patient concerning self-administration of a drug?
Answers:
Where to purchase the medication
The cost of the drug
The therapeutic effects and possible adverse effects
The pharmacokinetics of the drug
Question 53A 66-year-old woman has a complex medical history that includes poorly-controlled type 1 diabetes, renal failure as a result of diabetic nephropathy and chronic heart failure (CHF). Her care provider has recently added spironolactone (Aldactone) to the woman’s medication regimen. The nurse should consequently assess for signs and symptoms of
Answers:
atrial fibrillation.
thrombophlebitis.
hyperkalemia.
leukocytosis.
Question 54
In order to promote therapeutic drug effects, the Nurse Practitioner should always encourage patients to
Answers:
take their medication with meals.
take their medication at the prescribed times.
increase medication dosages if necessary.
use alternative therapy to increase the effects of their medications.
Question 55
A patient has been prescribed zolpidem (Ambien) for short-term treatment of insomnia. Which of the following will the nurse include in a teaching plan for this patient? (Select all that apply.)
Answers:
The drug should not be used for longer than 1 month.
It should be taken 1 hour to 90 minutes before going to bed.
The drug does not cause sleepiness in the morning.
One of the most common adverse effects of the drug is headache.
It is available in both quick-onset and continuous-release oral forms.
Question 56
A Nurse Practitioner who provides care on an acute medicine unit has frequently recommended the use of nicotine replacement gum for patients who express a willingness to quit smoking during their admission or following their discharge. For which of the following patients would nicotine gum be contraindicated?
Answers:
A patient who received treatment for kidney failure due to an overdose of acetaminophen
A patient whose pulmonary embolism was treated with a heparin infusion
A patient with a history of angina who experienced a non-ST wave myocardial infarction
A patient whose stage III pressure ulcer required intravenous antibiotics and a vacuum dressing
Question 57
Which of the following is TRUE about long acting beta agonist use in asthma patients?
Answers:
It is useful in exercise induced asthma
It is effective to use in acute exacerbations
It may be used as solo treatment in step 2 of asthma treatment
It can be combined with an inhaled corticosteroid to improve asthma control
Question 58
A 49-year-old woman has been diagnosed with myalgia. The physician has recommended aspirin. The patient is concerned that the aspirin will upset her stomach. The nurse will encourage the patient to
Answers:
crush the tablet before swallowing.
swallow the tablet whole.
swallow the tablet with milk or food.
avoid drinking milk for 3 hours after swallowing the tablet.
Question 59A 72-year-old female patient is prescribed ipratropium aerosol for pulmonary emphysema. The nurse will instruct her to “test spray” the new metered-dose inhaler (MDI) three times before using it to prevent which of the following?
Answers:
Anaphylactoid reaction
Asymptomatic elevated hepatic enzymes levels
Paradoxic acute bronchospasm
Symptomatic hepatitis with hyperbilirubinemia
Question 60A 68-year-old man complains of a chronic, nonproductive cough. He states that he has to have relief, that he has been coughing every 2 to 3 minutes, and he is worn out. Dextromethorphan is prescribed for him. Before he leaves the clinic he asks how long it will take for the medicine to work. The nurse will advise him that he should experience therapeutic effects in
Answers:
5 minutes.
10 minutes.
15 to 30 minutes.
60 minutes.
Question 61
A Nurse Practitioner has been following a male patient who is taking hydralazine, clonidine, and a diuretic for hypertension. After 2 weeks of medication therapy, the patient begins to complain of numbness and tingling in his hands and feet. The Nurse Practitioner suspects that these signs or symptoms are
Answers:
a result of new onset diabetes.
an adverse effect of the diuretic.
signs of peripheral neuritis.
an idiosyncratic reaction to clonidine.
Question 62
A 77-year-old patient has a long-standing history of hypertension, a health problem that is being treated with metoprolol and a thiazide diuretic. Before administering the 8 AM dose of these medications, what assessments should the nurse perform and document? (Select all that apply.)
Answers:
Respiratory rate
Oxygen saturation
Temperature
Heart rate
Blood pressure
Question 63Topical inhaled alpha adrenergic blocking agents or nasal vasoconstricting decongestants should not be used chronically (>5 days) because they can cause
Answers:
rebound insomnia
rebound coughing
rebound rhinitis/congestion
None of the above
Question 64
A patient is taking cholestyramine. The Nurse Practitioner will assess for which of the following common adverse effects of the drug?
Answers:
Abdominal pain

Headache
Constipation
Indigestion
Question 65
In which of the following patients would a Nurse Practitioner expect to experience alterations in drug metabolism?
Answers:
A 35-year-old woman with cervical cancer
A 41-year-old man with kidney stones
A 50-year-old man with cirrhosis of the liver
A 62-year-old woman in acute renal failure
Question 66
A 46-year-old white American has been prescribed a drug that binds to acid glycoproteins. The nurse understands that white Americans usually receive
Answers:
a higher-than-normal dose of drugs that bind to acid glycoproteins.
a lower-than-normal dose of drugs that bind to acid glycoproteins.
the recommended normal dose of drugs that bind to acid glycoproteins.
one half the recommended dose of drugs that bind to acid glycoproteins.
Question 67
A 20-year-old woman calls the clinic at 5 PM and reports to the Nurse Practitioner that she forgot to take her morning dose of fexofenadine (Allegra). She usually takes her evening dose at 8 PM. She wants to know what she should do. The Nurse Practitioner will instruct her to
Answers:
double her evening dose.
skip the evening dose and start back in the morning.
forget about the morning dose and take the evening dose.
take the morning dose now and the evening dose at the regular time.
Question 68
A patient with a recent diagnosis of acute renal failure has a long-standing seizure disorder which has been successfully controlled for several years with antiseizure medications. The nurse should recognize that the patient’s compromised renal function will likely
Answers:
increase the half-life of medications that are metabolized by the kidneys.
decrease the first-pass effect of medications that the patient is given.
necessitate intravenous, rather than oral, medications.
make the antiseizure medications less effective than in the past.
Question 69
A 79-year-old woman who takes several medications for a variety of chronic health problems has been prescribed an oral antiplatelet aggregator that is to be taken once daily. The nurse has encouraged the woman to take the pill at the same time of day that she takes some of her other medications. What is the most likely rationale for the nurse’s advice?
Answers:
Integrating the new drug into the patient’s existing schedule promotes adherence.
Combining a new drug with one or more existing drugs mitigates the risk of adverse effects.
Taking several drugs at one time maximizes recovery time for the liver and kidneys.
Rapid drug clearance fostered when a patient is able to minimize the number of drug administration times.
Question 70
A clinic Nurse Practitioner is planning care for a 68-year-old man who has been on omeprazole (Prilosec) therapy for heartburn for some time. Regarding the patient’s safety, which of the following would be a priority nursing action?
Answers:
Teach the patient to take omeprazole 1 hour before meals.
Emphasize that the drug should not be crushed or chewed.
Coordinate bone density testing for the patient.
Monitor the patient for the development of diarrhea.
Question 71
An expected outcome for a patient who has just taken sublingual nitroglycerin should be
Answers:
increased heart rate and decreased blood pressure.
decreased heart rate and decreased blood pressure.
increased heart rate and increased blood pressure.
decreased heart rate and increased blood pressure.
Question 72
A Nurse Practitioner is providing care for a patient who suffered extensive burns to his extremities during a recent industrial accident. Topical lidocaine gel has been ordered to be applied to the surfaces of all his burns in order to achieve adequate pain control. When considering this order, the Nurse Practitioner should be aware that
Answers:
intravenouslidocaine may be preferable to topical application.
lidocaine must be potentiated with another anesthetic in order to achieve pain control.
pain relief is unlikely to be achieved due to the destruction of nerve endings in the burn site.
there is a risk of systemic absorption of the lidocaine through the patient’s traumatized skin.
Question 73
A 22-year-old male college senior has lived with a diagnosis of Crohn’s disease for several years and has undergone several courses of treatment with limited benefit. Which of the following targeted therapies has the potential to alleviate the symptoms of Crohn’s disease?
Answers:
Tositumomab plus 131I (Bexxar)
Muromonab-CD3 (Orthoclone OKT3)
Infliximab (Remicade)
Eculizumab (Soliris)
Question 74
A Nurse Practitioner is caring for a patient who is diabetic and has been diagnosed with hypertension. An angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor, captopril, has been prescribed for her. Which of the following should the Nurse Practitioner assess before beginning drug therapy?
Answers:
Serum calcium levels
Serum potassium levels
Blood glucose levels
Serum magnesium levels
Question 75
A 60-year-old African-American man lives with a number of chronic health problems. Genetic factors are likely to influence his etiology and/or treatment of
Answers:
hypertension.
low bone density.
a seizure disorder.
cardiac arrhythmias.
Question 76
A 70-year-old man with diabetes mellitus is taking metoprolol (Lopressor) to manage his hypertension. The nurse would be sure to instruct the patient to
Answers:
take his pulse at least four times a day.
weigh himself once a week at the same time of the day.
avoid smoke-filled rooms.
understand the signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia.
Question 77
A Nurse Practitioner explains to a patient that nitroglycerin patches should be applied in the morning and removed in the evening. This medication schedule reduces the potential for
Answers:
adverse effects.
nitrate dependence.
nitrate tolerance.
toxic effects.
Question 78
A patient receives 25 units of NPH insulin at 7.AM. At what time of day should the nurse advise the patient to be most alert for a potential hypoglycemic reaction?
Answers:
After breakfast
Before lunch
Late afternoon
Bedtime
Question 79
A Nurse Practitioner is a member of a research team that is exploring unique differences in responses to drugs that each individual possesses, based on genetic make-up. This area of study is called
Answers:
pharmacotherapeutics.
pharmacodynamics.
pharmacoeconomics.
pharmacogenomics.

Question 80
A Nurse Practitioner is caring for a patient who is taking digoxin and a loop diuretic. Which of the following would be most important for the Nurse Practitioner to monitor?
Answers:
Electrocardiogram results
Potassium levels
Sodium levels
Liver enzymes
Question 81
To maximize the therapeutic effect of diphenoxylateHCl with atropine sulfate, the nurse will instruct the patient to take the medication
Answers:
once a day.
twice a day.
every 2 hours.
four times a day.
Question 82
A man who smokes one pack of cigarettes daily has been diagnosed with chronic bronchitis. He has been prescribed theophylline by his family doctor. What effect will the patient’s smoking status have on the therapeutic use of theophylline?
Answers:
Theophylline may be contraindicated due to the risk of an anaphylactoid reaction
The patient may require higher doses of theophylline than a nonsmoker
The patient may require administration of an inhaled bronchodilator before each dose of theophylline
The patient will require serial blood testing to ensure a safe serum level of theophylline
Question 83
A 60-year-old man has scheduled a follow-up appointment with his primary care provider stating that the omeprazole (Prilosec) which he was recently prescribed is ineffective. The patient states, “I take it as soon as I feel heartburn coming on, but it doesn’t seem to help at all.” How should the nurse best respond to this patient’s statement?
Answers:
“It could be that Prilosec isn’t the right drug for you, so it would be best to talk this over with your care provider.”
“Prilosec won’t really decrease the sensation of heartburn, but it is still minimizing the damage to your throat and stomach that can be caused by the problem.”
“Prilosec will help your heartburn but it’s not designed to provide immediate relief of specific episodes of heartburn.”
“A better strategy is to take a dose of Prilosec 15 to 30 minutes before meals or drinks that cause you to get heartburn.”
Question 84
A 34-year-old male patient is prescribed methimazole (MMI). The Nurse Practitioner will advise him to report which of the following immediately?
Answers:
Vertigo
Intolerance to cold
Loss of appetite
Epigastric distress
Question 85
A Nurse Practitioner is providing patient education to a 35-year-old man who has been prescribed clonidine (Catapres) as part of step 2 antihypertensive therapy. The Nurse Practitioner should anticipate that the drug will be administered
Answers:
intravenously.
subcutaneously.
transdermally.
orally.
Question 86
It is determined that a patient, who is in a hepatic coma, needs a laxative. Lactulose is prescribed. Which of the following should the nurse monitor to assess the efficacy of the lactulose therapy?
Answers:
Water levels in the colon
Oncotic pressure in the colon
Blood ammonia levels
Relief from symptoms
Question 87A diabetic patient being treated for obesity tells the Nurse Practitioner that he is having adverse effects from his drug therapy. The patient has been taking dextroamphetamine for 2 weeks as adjunct therapy. Which of the following adverse effects would need the Nurse Practitioner’s immediate attention?

Answers:
Decreased libido
Increased blood glucose
Dry eyes
Jittery feeling
Question 88
A resident of a long-term care facility receives 12.5 mg metoprolol (Lopressor) at 8 AM and 8 PM daily. Before administering this drug, the nurse should perform and document what assessments?
Answers:
Oxygen saturation and respiratory rate
Heart rate and blood pressure
Level of consciousness and pain level
Temperature and respiratory rate
Question 89
A 35 year old patient presents with a concern of two high blood pressures at local health fairs in the past month. The patient has a history of Type 2 Diabetes, Chronic Constipation, and Obesity. Today her pressure is 145/93. You will:
Answers:
Begin hydrochlorothiazide 12.5 mg daily.
Begin furosemide 20 mg daily.
Ask the patient to monitor their BP’s at home and reduce their sodium intake only.
Begin amlodipine 10 mg daily.
Question 90Which statement is FALSE regarding the treatment of hyperthyroidism?
Answers:
Propylthiouracil (PTU) reduces peripheral conversion of T4 to the more potent T3
Since methimazole (Tapazole) is stronger than Propylthiouracil (PTU), Methimazole should be initiated at 15 mg/day compared to 300 mg/day for Propylthiouracil for treatment of mild disease
Long-acting beta-blocking agents are given as adjunctive therapy until Propulthiouracil (PTU) or methimazole (Tapazole) restores the patient to euthyroid
Methimazole (Tapazole) is the drug of choice for pregnant or lactating females.
Question 91A 58-year-old man is prescribed dicyclomine (Bentyl) for irritable bowel syndrome. In which of the following conditions is dicyclomine therapy contraindicated?
Answers:
Hypertension
Diabetes mellitus
Glaucoma
Rheumatoid arthritis
Question 92
Mr. Tan is a 69-year-old man who prides himself in maintaining an active lifestyle and a healthy diet that includes adequate fluid intake. However, Mr. Tan states that he has experienced occasional constipation in recent months. What remedy should be the nurse’s first suggestion?
Answers:
Bismuth subsalicylate
A bulk-forming (fiber) laxative
A stimulant laxative
A hyperosmotic laxative
Question 93
A mother brings her 4-year-old child, who is vomiting and has a temperature of 103°F into the emergency department (ED). The ED physician orders acetaminophen (Tylenol) for the fever. The best form of Tylenol to give the child, considering her presentation, would be
Answers:
liquid.
lozenge.
tablet.
suppository.
Question 94
A Nurse Practitioner is caring for a male patient who has a diagnosis of coronary artery disease (CAD). His drug therapy includes lovastatin. Because the patient has a history of severe renal disease, the nurse will assess for which of the following?
Answers:
Decrease in plasma concentration of lovastatin
Increase in the statin tolerance level
Decrease in LDL
Increase in plasma concentration of lovastatin

Question 95
A 24-year-old factory worker has been prescribed guaifenesin for the first time. Which of the following will be a priority assessment by the nurse before the patient’s first dose?
Answers:
The amount of salt intake
The amount of alcohol consumption
The amount of fatty foods eaten daily
The number of cigarettes smoked per day
Question 96 A patient has been prescribed a Scheduled 5 drug, an example of this drug is
Answers:
Antianxiety
Narcotic Analgesics
Barbituates
Antitussives
Question 97 A high school student was diagnosed with asthma when he was in elementary school and has become accustomed to carrying and using his “puffers”. In recent months, he has become more involved in sports and has developed a habit of administering albuterol up to 10 times daily. The nurse should teach the student that overuse of albuterol can lead to
Answers:
permanent liver damage.
rebound bronchoconstriction.
community-acquired pneumonia.
severe anticholinergic effects.
Question 98 Drugs have a high potential for abuse. There is no routine therapeutic use for these drugs and they are not available for regular use. They may be obtained for “investigational use only” by applying to the U.S. Drug Enforcement Agency. Examples include heroin and LSD. Which scheduled drug is this?
Answers:
Schedule 1
Schedule 2
Schedule 3
Schedule 4
Question 99 A patient has a history of tonic-clonic seizures that have been successfully treated with phenytoin (Dilantin) for several years. Phenytoin achieves a therapeutic effect by
Answers:
decreasing the influx of sodium into neurons.
increasing the levels of available glutamate.
simultaneously potentiating the effects of GABA and inhibiting reuptake.
by slowing the function of calcium channels within the neurological system.
Question 100  A 29-year-old female patient has been prescribed orlistat (Xenical) for morbid obesity. The nurse is providing patient education concerning the drug. An important instruction to the patient would be to
Answers:
omit the dose if the meal does not contain fat.
takeorlistat and multivitamins together.
takeorlistat in one dose at breakfast.
omit the dose if the meal does not contain protein.
Question 101 When completing this exam, did you comply with Walden University’s Code of Conduct including the expectations for academic integrity?
Answers:
Yes
No

NURS6512 Week 6 Exam Latest

NURS6512 Week 6 Exam Latest

NURS6512 Week 6 Exam Latest

Question
NURS6512 Advanced Health Assessment and Diagnostic Reasoning
Week 6 Exam
Question 1You are palpating a patient’s thyroid and find that its broadest dimension measures 4 cm. The right lobe is 25% larger than the left. These data would indicate:
Answers:
B. a multinodular goiter.
D. thyroiditis.
A. a congenital anomaly.
C. a normal thyroid gland.
Question 2Mrs. Britton brings her 16-year-old son in with a complaint that he is not developing correctly into adolescence. Which structures disproportionately enlarge in the male during adolescence?
Answers:
A. Coronal sutures
D. Nose and thyroid cartilages
C. Mandible and maxilla bones
B. Hyoid and cricoid cartilages
Question 3Peritonitis produces bowel sounds that are:
Answers:
hyperactive.
absent.
high pitched.
hypoactive.
Question 4When communicating with older children and teenagers, you should be sensitive to their:
Answers:
desire for adult companionship.
natural urge to communicate.
need for verbal instructions.
typical reluctance to talk.
Question 5The review of systems is a component of the:
Answers:
assessment.
physical examination.
health history.
past medical/surgical history.
Question 6You are examining a pregnant patient and have noted a vascular lesion. When you blanche over the vascular lesion, the site blanches and refills evenly from the center outward. The nurse documents this lesion as a:
Answers:
D. purpura.
A. telangiectasia.
B. spider angioma.
C. petechiae.
Question 7Mr. Akins is a 78-year-old patient who presents to the clinic with complaints of hearing loss. Which of the following are changes in hearing that occur in the elderly? Select all that apply.

Answers:
a. Loss of high frequency
b. Progression is slow
c. Bone conduction heard longer than air conduction
d. Sounds may be garbled and difficult to localize
e. Results from cranial nerve VII
f. Unable to hear in a crowded room
Question 8A guideline for history taking is for caregivers to:
Answers:
write detailed information as stated by patients so that their priorities are reflected.
make notes sparingly so that patients can be observed during the history taking.
ask direct questions before open-ended questions so that data move from simple to complex.
ask for a complete history at once so that data are not forgotten between meetings.
Question 9Mr. Johnson presents with a freely movable cystic mass in the midline of the high neck region at the base of the tongue. This is most likely a:
Answers:
A. parotid gland tumor.
B. branchial cleft cyst.
C. Stensen duct stone.
D. thyroglossal duct cyst.
Question 10A 51-year-old woman calls with complaints of weight loss and constipation. She reports enlarged hemorrhoids and rectal bleeding. You advise her to:
Answers:
use topical over-the-counter hemorrhoid treatment for 1 week.
eat six small meals a day.
come to the laboratory for a stool guaiac test.
exercise and eat more fiber.
Question 11
Which cranial nerves innervate the face?
Answers:
D. VIII and IX
B. III and VI
A. II and V
C. V and VII
Question 12Mr. Black is a 44-year-old patient who presents to the clinic with complaints of neck pain that he thinks is from his job involving computer data entry. As the examiner, you are checking the range of motion in his neck and note the greatest degree of cervical mobility is at:
Answers:
D. C4 to C5.
B. C2 to C3.
C. C3 to C4.
A. C1 to C2.
Question 13Expected hair distribution changes in older adults include:
Answers:
increased terminal hair follicles on the scalp.
more prominent peripheral extremity hair production.
more prominent axillary and pubic hair production.
increased terminal hair follicles to the tragus of men’s ears.
Question 14The attitudes of the health care professional:
Answers:
do not influence patient behavior.
are culturally derived.
are largely irrelevant to the success of relationships with the patient.
are difficult for the patient to sense.
Question 15Which of the following is the most vital nutrient?
Answers:
Protein
Carbohydrate
Water
Fat
Question 16The recommended minimum daily protein requirement for the normal adult is ______.
Answer:
Evaluation Method          Answer  Case Sensitivity
Match  10% to 35% of total calories
Contains              10 to 35 percent
Pattern Match    It is recommended that protein content of the diet be 10% to 35% of total calories, or 46 g in adults.
Contains              10% to 35%
Question 17Mr. Mills is a 55-year-old patient who presents to the office for an initial visit for health promotion. A survey of mobility and activities of daily living (ADLs) is part of a(an):
Answers:
ethnic assessment.
functional assessment.
social history.
genetic examination.
Question 18When examining the skull of a 4-month-old baby, you should normally find:
Answers:
D. overlap of cranial bones.
A. closure of the anterior fontanel.
C. ossification of all sutures.
B. closure of the posterior fontanel.
Question 19Periods of silence during the interview can serve important purposes, such as:
Answers:
allowing the clinician to catch up on documentation.
increasing the length of the visit.
providing time for reflection.
promoting calmness.
Question 20After thorough inspection of the abdomen, the next assessment step is:
Answers:
palpation.
percussion.
rectal examination.
auscultation.
Question 21The term denoting the caregiver’s need to do no harm to the patient is:
Answers:
utilitarianism.
nonmaleficence.
beneficence.
autonomy.
Question 22When taking a history, you should:
Answers:
start the interview with the patient’s family history.
ask the patient to give you any information they can recall about their health.
use a chronologic and sequential framework.
use a holistic and eclectic structure.
Question 23The position on a clock, topographic notations, and anatomic landmarks:
Answers:
are used for noting disease progression.
are ways for recording laboratory study results.
should not be used in the legal record.
are methods for recording locations of findings.
Question 24Tuning forks with a frequency of 500 to 1000 Hz are most commonly used to measure:
Answers:
buzzing from bone conduction.
noise above the threshold level.
hearing range of normal speech.
buzzing or tingling sensations.
Question 25Which type of speculum should be used to examine a patient’s tympanic membrane?
Answers:
The largest speculum that will fit comfortably in the ear
The shortest speculum available
The smallest speculum that will illuminate the ear
Any speculum that will fit the otoscope head
Question 26A blood pressure cuff bladder should be long enough to:
Answers:
cover 75% to 80% of the arm circumference.
cover 45% to 50% of the arm circumference.
completely encircle the arm.
cover 20% to 25% of the arm circumference.
Question 27Mrs. Hartzell is a 34-year-old patient who has presented for nutritional counseling because she is a vegetarian. Deficiency of which of the following is a concern in the vegetarian diet?
Answers:
Ascorbic acid
Folate
Fiber
Vitamin B12
Question 28Mrs. Raymonds is a 24-year-old patient who has presented for a routine concern over her current weight. In your patient teaching with her, you explain the importance of macronutrients. Which of the following is a macronutrient?
Answers:
Calcium
Iron
Thiamin
Fat
Question 29Pigmented, raised, warty lesions over the face and trunk should be assessed by an experienced practitioner who can distinguish:
Answers:
D. seborrheic keratoses from actinic keratoses.
A. cutaneous tags from lentigines.
B. furuncles from folliculitis.
C. sebaceous hyperplasia from eczema.
Question 30A 5-year-old child presents with nasal congestion and a headache. To assess for sinus tenderness you should palpate over the:
Answers:
maxillary sinuses only.
sphenoid sinuses only.
sphenoid and frontal sinuses.
maxillary and frontal sinuses.
Question 31Underestimation of blood pressure will occur if the blood pressure cuff’s width covers:
Answers:
more than 4 inches of the lower arm.
less than one-half of the upper arm.
less than 5 inches of the lower arm.
more than two-thirds of the upper arm.
Question 32A 17-year-old girl presents to the clinic for a sports physical. Physical examination findings reveal bradycardia, multiple erosions of tooth enamel, and scars on her knuckles. She appears healthy otherwise. You should ask her if she:
Answers:
binges and vomits.
is cold intolerant.
has constipation frequently.
has regular menstrual periods.
Question 33George Michaels, a 22-year-old patient, tells the nurse that he is here today to “check his allergies.” He has been having “green nasal discharge” for the last 72 hours. How would the nurse document his reason for seeking care?
Answers:
G. M., a 22-year-old male, states he has allergies and wants them checked.
G. M. came into the clinic complaining of green discharge for the past 72 hours.
G.M. is a 22-year-old male here for having “green nasal discharge” for the past 72 hours.
G. M. is a 22-year-old male here for “allergies.”
Question 34Which question would be considered a leading question?
Answers:
“You don’t get headaches often, do you?”
“At what time of the day are your headaches the most severe?”
“What do you think is causing your headaches?”
“On a scale of 1 to 10, how would you rate the severity of your headaches?”
Question 35Percussing at the right midclavicular line, below the umbilicus, and continuing upward is the technique for locating the:
Answers:
medial border of the spleen.
upper right kidney ridge.
descending aorta.
lower liver border.
Question 36Unusual white areas on the skin may be due to:
Answers:
D. Down syndrome.
C. vitiligo.
B. polycythemia.
A. adrenal disease.
Question 37White, rounded, or oval ulcerations surrounded by a red halo and found on the oral mucosa are:
Answers:
leukoedema.
Stensen ducts.
Fordyce spots.
aphthous ulcers.
Question 38Mr. and Mrs. Johnson have presented to the office with their infant son with complaints of ear drainage. When examining an infant’s middle ear, the nurse should use one hand to stabilize the otoscope against the head while using the other hand to:
Answers:
stabilize the chest.
hold the speculum in the canal.
pull the auricle down and back.
distract the infant.
Question 39In issues surrounding ethical decision making, beneficence refers to the:
Answers:
care provider acting as a father or mother figure.
care provider knowing what is best for the patient.
need to do good for the patient.
need to avoid harming the patient.
Question 40Under normal circumstances, how much water is lost daily by the body?
Answers:
3 to 4 L
1 to 1.5 L
5 to 6 L
2 to 2.5 L
Question 41During percussion, a dull tone is expected to be heard over:
Answers:
emphysemic lungs.
most of the abdomen.
the liver.
healthy lung tissue.
Question 42Knowledge of the culture or cultures represented by the patient should be used to:
Answers:
form stereotypical categories.
help make the interview questions more pertinent.
draw conclusions regarding individual patient needs.
form a sense of the patient.
Question 43
A college student comes to the student health center complaining of difficulty in concentrating during class and while studying. The diet that would contribute to this problem is one that consumes mostly:
Answers:
lean meat and fish.
pasta and chicken.
sandwiches and diet drinks.
fruit and vegetables.
Question 44Placing the base of a vibrating tuning fork on the midline vertex of the patient’s head is a test for:
Answers:
air conduction of sound.
bone versus air conduction.
lateralization of sound.
mallear auditory ability.
Question 45Mr. Williams, age 25, has recovered recently from an upper and lower respiratory infection. He describes a long-standing nasal dripping. He is seeking treatment for a mild hearing loss that has not gone away. Information concerning his chronic postnasal drip should be documented within which section of his history?
Answers:
Social history
Age-specific data
Past medical data
Past surgical data
Question 46You are using an ophthalmoscope to examine a patient’s inner eye. You rotate the lens selector clockwise, then counterclockwise to compensate for:
Answers:
amblyopia.
strabismus.
myopia.
astigmatism.
Question 47Ms. G. is being seen for her routine physical examination. She is a college graduate and president of a research firm. Although her exact salary is unknown, she has adequate health insurance. Most of the above information is part of Ms. G.’s _____ history.
Answers:
personal and social
present problem
family
past medical
Question 48Your patient presents with symptoms that lead you to suspect acute appendicitis. Which assessment finding is least likely to be associated with this condition early in its course?
Answers:
Rebound tenderness
Positive McBurney sign
Consistent right lower quadrant (RLQ pain)
Positive psoas sign
Question 49The examiner’s evaluation of a patient’s mental status belongs in the:
Answers:
physical examination.
patient education.
history of present illness.
review of systems.
Question 50Before performing an abdominal examination, the examiner should:
Answers:
don double gloves.
ascertain the patient’s HIV status.
completely disrobe the patient.
have the patient empty his or her bladder.
Question 51To perform the Rinne test, place the tuning fork on the:
Answers:
forehead.
preauricular area.
mastoid bone.
top of the head.
Question 52Which is the best way to position a patient’s neck for palpation of the thyroid?
Answers:
A. Flexed away from the side being examined
C. Flexed toward the side being examined
B. Flexed directly forward
D. Hyperextended directly backward
Question 53Inspection of the abdomen should begin with the patient supine and the examiner:
Answers:
standing at the patient’s left.
standing at the foot of the table.
seated on the patient’s right.
walking around the table.
Question 54Ms. Jones is a 31-year-old female patient who presents for a routine physical examination. Which examination technique will be used first?
Answers:
Light palpation
Deep palpation
Inspection
Percussion
Question 55During an interview, you have the impression that a patient may be considering suicide. Which action is essential?
Answers:
Avoid directly confronting the patient regarding your impression.
Record the impression in the patient’s chart and refer the patient for hospitalization.
Ask whether the patient would like to visit a psychiatrist.
Ask whether the patient has considered self-harm.
Question 56Recommended carbohydrate content of total dietary intake (% total calories) is ____%.
Answer:
Evaluation Method          Answer  Case Sensitivity
Contains              45-65
Pattern Match    Forty five to sixty five percent of total calories intake should be from carbohydrates.
Contains              Forty five to sixty five
Question 57As you explain your patient’s condition to her husband, you notice that he is leaning toward you and pointedly blinking his eyes. Knowing that he is from England, your most appropriate response to this behavior is to:
Answers:
tell him that it is all right to be angry.
ask whether he has any questions.
tell him that you understand his need to be alone.
ask whether he would prefer to speak to the clinician.
Question 58You are completing a general physical examination on Mr. Rock, a 39-year-old man with complaints of constipation. When examining a patient with tense abdominal musculature, a helpful technique is to have the patient:
Answers:
hold his or her breath.
flex his or her knees.
sit upright.
raise his or her head off the pillow.
Question 59Which of the following formats would be used for visits that address problems not yet identified in the problem-oriented medical record (POMR)?
Answers:
Referral note
Comprehensive health history
Brief SOAP note
Progress note
Question 60Differential diagnoses belong in the:
Answers:
physical examination.
assessment.
plan.
history.
Question 61Which of the following organs is part of the alimentary tract?
Answers:
Stomach
Pancreas
Liver
Gallbladder
Question 62When assessing abdominal pain in a college-age woman, one must include:
Answers:
food likes and dislikes.
age at completion of toilet training.
history of interstate travel.
the first day of the last menstrual period.
Question 63The infant should be placed in which position to have his or her height or length measured?
Answers:
Supine on a measuring board
Prone on a measuring board
Vertical, with the examiner’s hands under the infant’s axilla
In the lateral position with the toes against a measuring board
Question 64In counseling a client regarding nutrition education, you explain that linoleic acid, a major fatty acid, is thought to be essential for:
Answers:
glycogen storage in the liver.
building and maintaining tissues.
normal growth and development.
myocardial cell function.
Question 65Mr. L. presents to the clinic with severe groin pain and a history of kidney stones. Mr. L.’s son tells you that, for religious reasons, his father wishes to keep any stone that is passed into the urine filter that he has been using. What is your most appropriate response?
Answers:
“We don’t know yet if your father has another kidney stone, so we must analyze this one.”
“We cannot let him keep his stone because it violates our infection control policy.”
“The stone must be sent to the lab for examination and therefore cannot be kept.”
“With your father’s permission, we will examine the stone and request that it be returned to him.”
Question 66Mr. Jones is a 45-year-old patient who presents for a physical examination. On examination, you note costochondral beading, enlarged skull, and bowed legs and diagnose him with rickets. A deficiency of which fat-soluble micronutrient can result in rickets?
Answers:
Vitamin D
Vitamin  K
Vitamin E
Vitamin A
Question 67Tangential lighting is best used for inspecting skin:
Selected Answer:
Answers:
color.
exudates.
symmetry.
contour.
Question 68When you are questioning a patient regarding alcohol intake, she tells you that she is only a social drinker. Which initial response is appropriate?
Answers:
“What amount and what kind of alcohol do you drink in a week?”
“Do the other people in your household consume alcohol?”
“If you only drink socially, you won t need to worry about always having a designated driver.”
“I’m glad that you are a responsible drinker.”
Question 69Coarse, dry, and brittle hair is associated with which metabolic disorder?
Answers:
Cushing syndrome
Hypothyroidism
Diabetes mellitus
Addison disease
Question 70A 22-year-old female nurse is interviewing an 86-year-old male patient. The patient avoids eye contact and answers questions only by saying, “Yeah,” “No,” or “I guess so.” Which of the following is appropriate for the interviewer to say or ask?
Answers:
We will be able to communicate better if you will look at me.
Does your religion make it hard for you to answer my questions?
Are you uncomfortable talking with me?
It s hard for me to gather useful information because your answers are so short.
Question 71Mr. D. complains of a headache. During the history, he mentions his use of alcohol and illicit drugs. This information would most likely belong in the:
Answers:
review of systems.
personal and social history.
past medical history.
chief complaint.
Question 72Mr. Franklin is speaking with you, the health care provider, about his respiratory problem. Mr. Franklin says, “I’ve had this cough for 3 days, and it’s getting worse.” You reply, “Tell me more about your cough.” Mr. Franklin states, “I wish I could tell you more. That’s why I’m here. You tell me what’s wrong!” Which caregiver response would be most appropriate for enhancing communication?
Answers:
I’d like to hear more about your experiences. Where were you born?
After 3 days, you’re tired of coughing. Have you had a fever?
I don’t know what’s wrong. You could have almost any disease.
I’ll examine you and figure out later what the problem is.
Question 73A serous membrane that lines the abdominal cavity and forms a protective cover for many abdominal structures is the:
Answers:
hilum.
periosteum.
peritoneum.
mediastinum.
Question 74Sweat glands, hair, and nails are all formed from:
Answers:
D. papillae that penetrate the epidermis.
A. basement membranes under cellular strata.
C. invaginations of epidermis into dermis.
B. closely packed squamous cells.
Question 75Which statement is true regarding the relationship of physical characteristics and culture?
Answers:
To be a member of a specific culture, an individual must have certain identifiable physical characteristics.
Gender and race are the two essential physical characteristics used to identify cultural groups.
Physical characteristics should be used to identify members of cultural groups.
There is a difference between distinguishing cultural characteristics and distinguishing physical characteristics.
Question 76You have just completed a skin assessment on Mr. Baker. During your assessment, you have transilluminated a skin lesion. During the physical examination, you know that skin lesions are transilluminated to distinguish:
Answers:
D. herpes zoster from varicella.
A. vascular from nonvascular lesions.
B. furuncles from folliculitis lesions.
C. fluid-filled from solid cysts or masses.
Question 77Nuchal rigidity is most commonly associated with:
Answers:
D. cranial nerve V damage.
B. meningeal irritation.
A. thyroiditis.
C. Down syndrome.
Question 78When palpating the abdomen, you should note whether the liver is enlarged in the:
Answers:
midepigastric region.
periumbilical area.
left lower quadrant.
right upper quadrant.
Question 79Fluorescing lesions are best distinguished using a(n):
Answers:
incandescent lamp.
transilluminator.
magnifying glass.
Wood’s lamp.
Question 80Which of the following is an “ABCD” characteristic of malignant melanoma?
Answers:
Asymmetric borders
Borders well demarcated
Color of lesion is uniform
Diameter less than 6 mm
Question 81What finding is unique to the documentation of a physical examination of an infant?
Answers:
Thyroid position
Prostate size
Liver span
Fontanel sizes
Question 82Mr. Abdul is a 40-year-old Middle Eastern man who presents to the office for a first visit with the complaint of new abdominal pain. You are concerned about violating a cultural prohibition when you prepare to do his rectal examination. The best tactic would be to:
Answers:
ask a colleague from the same geographic area if this examination is acceptable.
refer the patient to a provider more knowledgeable about cultural differences.
forego the examination for fear of violating cultural norms.
inform the patient of the reason for the examination and ask if it is acceptable to him.
Question 83Mr. Sanchez is a 45-year-old gentleman who has presented to the office for a physical examination to establish a new primary care health care provider. Which of the following describes a physical, not a cultural, differentiator?
Answers:
Race
Norm
Ritual
Rite
Question 84Small, minute bruises are called:
Answers:
ecchymoses.
spider veins.
petechiae.
telangiectasias.
Question 85When recording physical findings, which data are recorded first for all systems?
Answers:
Palpation
Inspection
Auscultation
Percussion
Question 86Mrs. Britton is a 34-year-old patient who presents to the office with complaints of skin rashes. You have noted a 4′ 3-cm, rough, elevated area of psoriasis. This is an example of a:
Answers:
B. patch.
D. papule.
A. plaque.
C. macule.
Question 87Tympanic thermometers measure body temperature when a probe is placed:
Answers:
under the ear.
in the auditory canal.
posterior to the ear.
anterior to the ear.
Question 88When assessing abdominal pain in a college-age woman, one must include:
Answers:
history of interstate travel.
the first day of the last menstrual period.
age at completion of toilet training.
food likes and dislikes.
Question 89During an interview, tears appear in the patient’s eyes and his voice becomes shaky. Initially, you should:
Answers:
offer a tissue and let him know it is all right to cry.
explain to the patient that you will be able to help him more if he can control his emotions.
ask him if he would like some time alone.
ask the patient what he is upset about.
Question 90Ms. Otten is a 45-year-old patient who presents with a complaint of weight gain. Which medication is frequently associated with weight gain?
Answers:
Steroids
Laxatives
Diuretics
Oral hypoglycemics

Question 91To correctly document absent bowel sounds, one must listen continuously for:
Answers:
30 seconds.
1 minute.
3 minutes.
5 minutes.
Question 92A detailed description of the symptoms related to the chief complaint is presented in the:
Answers:
differential diagnosis.
history of present illness.
assessment.
general patient information section.
Question 93When are open-ended questions generally most useful?
Answers:
After several close-ended questions have been asked
During the initial part of the interview
During the review of systems
While designing the genogram
Question 94Expected normal percussion tones include:
Answers:
tympany over an empty stomach.
dullness over the lungs.
hyperresonance over the lungs.
flatness over an empty stomach.
Question 95Which of the following occurs when firm pressure is used to apply the stethoscope’s bell end-piece to the skin?
Answers:
Most sounds are occluded.
Assessment findings are more accurate.
It transmits low-pitched sounds.
It functionally converts to a diaphragm end-piece.
Question 96
Your patient returns for a blood pressure check 2 weeks after a visit during which you performed a complete history and physical. This visit would be documented by creating a(n):
Answers:
problem-oriented medical record.
accident report.
triage note.
progress note.
Question 97
Before performing an abdominal examination, the examiner should:
Answers:
have the patient empty his or her bladder.
ascertain the patient’s HIV status.
completely disrobe the patient.
don double gloves.
Question 98Mrs. Berger is a 39-year-old woman who presents with a complaint of epigastric abdominal pain. You have completed the inspection of the abdomen. What is your next step in the assessment process?
Answers:
Light palpation
Deep palpation
Auscultation
Percussion
Question 99
When hearing is evaluated, which cranial nerve is being tested?
Answers:
XII
III
VIII
IV
Question 100
Mrs. G. reports an increase in her alcohol intake over the past 5 years. To screen her for problem drinking, you would use the:
Answers:
PACES assessment.
Glasgow Coma Scale.
Miller Analogies Test.
CAGE questionnaire.

NURS6521 Week 11

NURS6521 Week 11 Exam Latest

NURS6521 Week 11 Exam Latest

NURS6521 Advanced Pharmacology
Week 11 Exam
Question 1
A male patient has been brought to the emergency department during an episode of status epilepticus. Diazepam is to be administered intravenously. The APRN will be sure to
Question 2
Which of the following would the nurse include in a teaching plan about the signs and symptoms of thrombophlebitis and thromboembolism that should be reported by a patient taking estrogen?
Question 3
A patient is being seen in the emergency department for a sprained ankle and is given a drug to relieve pain. When a second dose of the pain medication is given, the patient develops redness of the skin, itching, and swelling at the site of injection of the drug. The most likely cause of this response is
Question 4
A 7-year-old child has tonsillitis and is prescribed penicillin V, which is to be administered at home. The nurse will instruct the parents to administer the drug
Question 5
A 66-year-old woman has experienced a significant decline in her quality of life as a result of worsening rheumatoid arthritis. Her physician has prescribed etanercept and the APRN is responsible for facilitating this new aspect of the patient’s drug regimen. This will involve the administration of
Question 6
A postmenopausal patient is prescribed bisphosphonates to treat osteoporosis. The nurse will instruct the patient to take the drug
Question 7
When planning care for a patient who is receiving filgrastim (Neupogen) for a nonmyeloid malignancy, the nurse should formulate which of the following patient outcomes? (Select all that apply.)
Question 8
A 15-year-old boy who has been taking dextroamphetamine for the treatment of ADHD has been experiencing a depressed mood and a sense of hopelessness. He confides in the school nurse that he has begun taking his stepfather’s antidepressant to improve his mood. After immediately phoning the boy’s stepfather, the nurse learns that the drug in question is phenelzine (Nardil), a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). The nurse should recognize that this combination of drugs creates a serious risk of what health problem?
Question 9
An elderly woman is slated for a hemiarthroplasty (hip replacement surgery) after falling and breaking her hip on the stairs outside her home. The woman’s pain in the time since her injury has been severe, and her care team has been treating it with morphine. Which of the following administration schedules is most likely to control the patient’s pain?
Question 10
A patient is taking flavoxate hydrochloride (Urispas) to help control an overactive bladder. On a follow-up visit to the clinic, the nurse will question the patient about which of the following?
Question 11
Alendronate (Fosamax) is prescribed for a 67-year-old postmenopausal woman. In order to help prevent gastrointestinal distress, the nurse will advise the patient to
Question 12
A Nurse Practitioner is caring for a 10-year-old boy who complains of chronic headaches. His mother reports that she gives him Tylenol at least three times a day. Which of the following will the nurse work with the physician to evaluate?
Question 13
A 45-year-old woman with acute leukemia is going to begin chemotherapy with vincristine. The nurse is aware that vincristine must always be administered
Question 14
A 68-year-old man is being treated for benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) and began treatment with finasteride (Proscar) 3 months ago. When planning the care of this patient, what desired outcome should the nurse prioritize?
Question 15
A 45-year-old female patient is prescribed ciprofloxacin to treat a bronchial infection. A nursing assessment revealed that she started taking daily vitamin supplements about 2 years ago. To maximize the therapeutic effects of the ciprofloxacin therapy, the nurse should advise the patient to
Question 16
A Nurse Practitioner is obtaining baseline physical data from a 7-year-old patient who is to be started on dextroamphetamine for ADHD. After obtaining vital signs, height, and weight, the nurse will prepare the patient for an
Question 17
The nurse recognizes that the potential for teratogenic drug effects is not static throughout the prenatal and postnatal periods. The potential for teratogenic effects is highest during
Question 18
A patient has been admitted to the critical care unit of the hospital with bacterial septicemia that has failed to respond to initial antibiotic treatment. The patient’s most recent blood cultures reveal the presence of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) in the patient’s blood. The nurse will anticipate that this patient will likely require intravenous administration of what antibiotic?
Question 19
A nurse practitioner has administered filgrastim to a diverse group of patients in recent months. Which of the following patients should the nurse observe for extremely elevated white blood cell counts following administration of the drug?
Question 20
A patient is taking etoposide for a testicular tumor refractory to treatment. The nursing assessment reveals that he is also taking warfarin. The nurse must carefully monitor for which of the following?
Question 21
A Nurse Practitioner is having difficulty administering a bitter drug to a 5-year-old child. The nurse should
Question 22
An immunocompromised 7-year-old child was recently discharged home with a peripherally-inserted central line (PIC line) for home antibiotic therapy. He has now been brought to the emergency department by his mother and father with signs and symptoms of line sepsis. Upon questioning, the mother states that she has been removing the PIC dressing daily and washing the site with warm water and a cloth. What nursing diagnosis is most appropriate in this situation?
Question 23
A 15-year-old patient has meningitis caused by Haemophilusinfluenzae. She is being treated with chloramphenicol. The most important nursing action for this patient would be to monitor
Question 24
A Nurse Practitioner is performing patient education for a woman who has just been prescribed a bisphosphonate. Which of the following diagnostic and history findings would have prompted the woman’s care provider to prescribe a bisphosphonate?
Question 25
A 29-year-old woman who is morbidly obese has recently begun a comprehensive, medically-supervised program of weight reduction. Prior to adding dextroamphetamine (Dexedrine) to her regimen, the patient should be questioned about her intake of
Question 26
A female patient is taking filgrastim (Neupogen) to decrease the incidence of infection. The nurse notices a small increase in the neutrophil count 2 days after starting therapy. The nurse’s evaluation of the increase is that
Question 27
A woman is receiving magnesium sulfate for intrapartumeclampsia. The patient is perspiring and her blood pressure is 88/50. The serum magnesium level is 10 mg/dL. The nurse will interpret these manifestations as
Question 28
After 6 months of unsuccessfully trying to conceive, a 31-year-old woman and her husband have sought a referral to a fertility specialist in order to explore their options. A nurse at the clinic should recognize that the woman may benefit from
Question 29
The clinical nurse educator who oversees the emergency department in a children’s hospital has launched an awareness program aimed at reducing drug errors. What measure addresses the most common cause of incorrect doses in the care of infants and children?
Question 30
A 30-year-old African-American woman tested positive for TB and is prescribed isoniazid. The nurse will plan the patient’s care to include close monitoring of the drug therapy because
Question 31
A 71-year-old man has just been prescribed finasteride (Proscar). Which of the following complaints by this patient most likely indicated a need for this drug?
Question 32
A Nurse Practitioner will monitor which of the following when assigned to a patient taking allopurinol for chronic gout who visits the clinic every 2 months?
Question 33
A Nurse Practitioner will instruct a patient taking allopurinol to take each dose
Question 34
Mr. Singh is a 66-year-old man who is receiving chemotherapy for the treatment of lung cancer that has metastasized to his liver. In an effort to prevent infection, Mr. Singh has been prescribed filgrastim (Neupogen). Which of the nurse’s following assessment questions most directly addresses a common adverse effect of filgrastim?
Question 35
A Nurse Practitioner who provides care on a pediatric medicine unit has conducted a medication reconciliation of a recently-admitted patient. In light of the fact that the child takes methylphenidate (Ritalin), the nurse is justified in considering a history of what health problem?
Question 36
A Nurse Practitioner is caring for a 64-year-old female patient who is receiving IV heparin and reports bleeding from her gums. The nurse checks the patient’s laboratory test results and finds that she has a very high aPTT. The nurse anticipates that which of the following drugs may be ordered?
Question 37
A Nurse Practitioner is working with a 16-year-old pregnant teen and assessing for behavior that may put the baby at risk. The most important assessment the nurse can make is
Question 38
A 65-year-old woman has an advanced form of rheumatoid arthritis. Her treatment includes a regular dosage of methotrexate. The APRN will advise her to take which of the following vitamin supplements while taking the drug?
Question 39
A patient has completed 4 weeks of treatment with epoetinalfa. Which of the following assessment findings would most strongly indicate that treatment has been effective?
Question 40
A 19-year-old patient reports to a clinic with vaginal discharge with a foul odor. A microscopic exam reveals trichomonasvaginalis. The nurse practitioner is aware that
Question 41
Morphine has been prescribed for a 28-year-old man with severe pain due to a back injury. The nurse will advise the patient to avoid
Question 42
A 20-year-old female patient is receiving topical clindamycin for acne vulgaris. She develops a rash and urticaria along with severe itching where the medication is applied. The nurse will formulate which of the following nursing diagnoses for the patient?
Question 43
A patient is to begin taking tobramycin (Nebcin) for a nosocomial infection. Which of the following assessments should the nurse prioritize?
Question 44
A child is admitted to the burn unit with second and third degree burns on both arms and part of his or her face. When administering topical medications to the burned areas, the nurse should
Question 45
A 56-year-old woman will soon begin treatment of her overactive bladder with tolterodine (Detrol). What patient teaching should the nurse provide to this woman?
Question 46
On the advice of her sister, a 52-year-old woman has visited her nurse practitioner to discuss the potential benefits of hormone replacement therapy in controlling the symptoms of menopause. Which of the following responses by the nurse is most appropriate?
Question 47
A 33-year-old man has developed acute gouty arthritis. He has been prescribed colchicine. When developing a care plan for this patient, which factor will be most important for the nurse to consider?
Question 48
A 29-year-old pregnant patient is extremely upset about having to take medication for a pre-existing medical condition. She is consumed with fear that her baby will be born with a physical deformity or a congenital anomaly but knows that she has to take the medication. She talks constantly about this and is unable to sleep most nights. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for this patient is?
Question 49
A Nurse Practitioner is instructing a 19-year-old female patient on the use of fluconazole for candida vaginitis. A teaching priority will be to
Question 50
A Nurse Practitioner works at a weight management clinic. To which of the following overweight patients could the nurse safely administer dextroamphetamine?
Question 51
A pregnant patient asks the Nurse Practitioner what over-the-counter medication she can take for recurring headaches. The nurse should recommend
Question 52
A patient with chronic heart failure has begun treatment with epoetinalfa, which she will receive in her own home from a home health nurse. The nurse should teach the patient to supplement this treatment with a diet that is high in
Question 53
A patient is receiving radiotherapy for an overactive thyroid gland and asks whether her milk is safe for her baby. If her treatment cannot be discontinued, what should the nurse recommend?
Question 54
Alprostadil (Caverject), a drug used to treat erectile dysfunction, has been prescribed to a 42-year-old patient. When providing education to the patient and his wife, the nurse should inform the wife about which of the following adverse effects?
Question 55
A 73-year-old woman has osteoporosis and is prescribed alendronate. She takes calcium and vitamin D supplements, drinks lots of water, and has just quit smoking. The nurse should advise the patient to also
Question 56
A patient will soon begin targeted therapy as a component of her treatment plan for chronic leukemia. The nurse is conducting health education about this new aspect of the patient’s drug regimen and the patient has asked about the potential side effects of treatment. How should the nurse best respond?
Question 57
An oncology nurse is reviewing the pathophysiology of cancer and is discussing with a colleague the factors that contribute to the success or failure of a patient’s chemotherapy. Which of the following cancerous cells is most susceptible to the effects of chemotherapeutic drugs?
Question 58A patient with non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma (NHL) will be starting a course of doxorubicin shortly. When planning this patient’s care, what nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize?
Question 59
A Nurse Practitioner is assigned to a patient who is at 32 weeks’ gestation and is receiving terbutaline (Brethine) IV for 24 hours to control preterm labor. Which of the following nursing actions will the nurse take to decrease the risk of hypotension and promote circulation to the fetus?
Question 60Which of the following would a Nurse Practitioner assess for in a patient who is taking polymyxin B systemically?
Question 61A Nurse Practitioner is caring for a patient who is on amphotericin B. On morning rounds the patient reports weakness, numbness, and a tingling sensation in his feet. What would be a priority action by the nurse?
Question 62 A patient has been admitted to the critical care unit with a diagnosis of peritonitis that has necessitated treatment with gentamicin. As a result, the care team should be cautious when concurrently administering other medications that may cause
Question 63A male patient is taking finasteride for BPH. Which of the following will the nurse evaluate at each clinic visit?
Question 64A male patient has been on long-term bicalutamide (Casodex) therapy. In order to assess adverse effects of the drug therapy, the nurse will closely monitor which of the following?
Question 65Which of the following patients will be at the greatest risk for anemia and would be the most likely candidate for epoetinalfa therapy?
Question 66A 30-year-old woman who is in the first trimester of pregnancy has presented to her primary care provider with a 4-day history of a reddened, itchy left eye that is crusted with purulent exudate. The clinician suspects a bacterial, rather than viral, etiology. How will the patient’s pregnancy affect the potential use of ciprofloxacin to treat her conjunctivitis?
Question 67 A 59-year-old man with a recent history of erectile dysfunction has been assessed and prescribed sildenafil (Viagra). When providing patient education to this man, the nurse should tell him which of the following?
Question 68A Nurse Practitioner is caring for a patient who is at 28 weeks’ gestation and is receiving terbutaline (Brethine) to control preterm labor. Which of the following assessment parameters should the nurse prioritize?
Question 69Laboratory testing has confirmed that a patient has chloroquine-resistant malaria and the patient’s physician has prescribed quinine along with an adjunctive drug. The nurse should question the physician’s order if the patient has a history of
Question 70A 36-year-old woman with a history of dysmenorrhea has begun treatment with progesterone, which she will be receiving by the intramuscular route. The nurse participating in the woman’s care should prioritize which of the following potential nursing diagnoses?
Question 71 The Nurse Practitioner has established peripheral IV access and begun an infusion of magnesium sulfate on a 29-year-old antepartum patient who is 35 weeks pregnant. Which of the following assessment findings most likely prompted the patient’s physician to order magnesium sulfate for this patient?
Question 72A patient is taking rifampin (Rifadin) for active TB. When discussing this drug with the patient, the nurse should stress that
Question 73A 36-year-old patient comes to the clinic and tells the nurse practitioner that she suspects that she is pregnant. During the initial assessment, the nurse practitioner learns that the patient is currently taking medications for diabetes, hypertension, and a seizure disorder. The nurse would be most concerned about which of the following medications?
Question 74A Nurse Practitioner is assessing a patient who has chronic lymphoblastic myelogenous leukemia. The treatment plan includes hydroxyurea (Hydrea). The nurse will assess the patient for which of the following?
Question 75A Nurse Practitioner is reviewing the prepregnancy medication regimen of a patient who has just had a positive pregnancy test. The nurse should be aware of which of the following changes in pharmacokinetics that accompanies pregnancy?
Question 76A Nurse Practitioner is discussing with a 58-year-old male patient the causes of erectile dysfunction in men over 50 years of age. Which of the following will the nurse inform the patient is the primary physical cause of erectile dysfunction of men in this age group?
Question 77A 38-year-old pregnant patient admits to the Nurse Practitioner that she is an alcoholic and has been consuming alcohol during her pregnancy. The nurse knows that using alcohol during pregnancy may result in a child who presents with
Question 78 The nurse practitioner orders Amoxicillin 500 mg tid? What is the total amount of medication patient will take per day?
Question 79 A patient has been prescribed oral tetracycline. The nurse will instruct the patient to take the drug
Question 80A 46-year-old man is receiving a quinupristin/dalfopristin IV infusion for a life-threatening infection. Which of the following would be most important for the nurse to monitor?
Question 81A 6-month-old child has developed skin irritation due to an allergic reaction. He has been prescribed a topical skin ointment. The nurse will consider which of the following before administering the drug?
Question 82A 3-year-old boy has developed otitis media and requires antibiotics. In order to increase the chance that the boy will take his prescribed medication, the nurse should
Question 83 A 51-year-old female patient has been receiving doxorubicin (Adriamycin) for metastatic breast cancer. Her medical record indicates she has cardiomyopathy and a cumulative dose of 300 mg/m2 of doxorubicin. Which of the following measures would help limit the severity of the cardiomyopathy in this patient?
Question 84A 20-year-old woman has been prescribed estrogen. As with all women taking estrogen, the nurse will carefully monitor the patient for which of the following?
Question 85A Nurse Practitioner is explaining to a pregnant 21-year-old college student why she cannot continue to take ibuprofen (Advil) for her headaches. The nurse draws a picture depicting drug molecules crossing the placental membrane and entering into the fetal circulation. The nurse tells the patient that the main reason this happens is because
Question 86 A Nurse Practitioner who provides care on a pediatric unit of a hospital is aware that the potential for harm as a result of drug errors is higher among infants and children than adults. This fact is primarily due to
Question 87A patient is receiving cefazolin in combination with anticoagulants. To minimize the adverse effects during therapy, the nurse will
Question 88 A Nurse Practitioner is explaining to the parents of a 6-year-old child suffering from angina why nitroglycerin patches for chest pain would not be appropriate. Which of the following will the nurse include in an explanation?
Question 89 A 20-year-old woman will soon begin taking oral contraceptives for the first time. What advice should the nurse provide to this patient?
Question 90 A 9-year-old boy was bought to his primary care provider by his mother with signs and symptoms of hookworm infection and will be sent home with a prescription for mebendazole. When provided patient and family education, the nurse should teach the mother with which of the following measures to avoid reinfection following treatment?
Question 91Intravenous carmustine has been prescribed for a patient with cancer. The nurse should help relieve the discomfort of pain and burning during the infusion by
Question 92 A 5-year-old boy needs an IM injection. The least painful and most effective injection site would be the
Question 93 A woman who is in the second trimester of her first pregnancy has been experiencing frequent headaches and has sought advice from her nurse practitioner about safe treatment options. What analgesic can the nurse most safely recommend?
Question 94 An older adult woman has been diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) and her care team has identified potential benefits of imatinib. Which of the following characteristics of this patient’s current health status may preclude the use of imatinib?
Question 95 A man has a demonstrated history of androgen deficiency and the consequences of this health problem include an inability to maintain an erection. Which of the following medications would best address this patient’s erectile dysfunction (ED)?
Question 96A patient with a recent diagnosis of chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) is discussing treatment options with his care team. What aspect of the patient’s condition would contraindicate the use of cyclophosphamide for the treatment of leukemia?
Question 97A Nurse Practitioner is explaining the use of acyclovir therapy to a 72-year-old man. Nephrotoxicity is discussed as a major adverse effect in older patients. To minimize the risk of the patient developing this adverse effect, the nurse will advise him to
Question 98Sulconazole has been prescribed for a patient with tineapedis. The nurse will instruct the patient to use the topical agent
Question 99An oncology nurse is aware of the risks for injury that exist around the preparation, transportation, and administration of chemotherapeutic agents. In order to reduce these risks of injury, the nurse should take which of the following actions?
Question 100 Mr. Lepp is a 63-year-old man who was diagnosed with colon cancer several weeks ago and who is scheduled to begin chemotherapy. He reports to the nurse that he read about the need for erythropoietin in an online forum for cancer patients and wants to explore the use of epoetinalfa with his oncologist. Which of the following facts should underlie the nurse’s response to Mr. Lepp?
Question 101 When completing this exam, did you comply with Walden University’s Code of Conduct including the expectations for academic integrity?