NURS6051 Week 8 assignment

Nurs6051 Week 8 assignment latest

Nurs6051 Week 8 assignment.

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Week 8 assignment Assignment: Creating a Flowchart
Workflow analysis aims to determine workflow patterns that
maximize the effective use of resources and minimize activities that do not add
value. There are a variety of tools that can be used to analyze the workflow of
processes and clarify potential avenues for eliminating waste. Flowcharts are a
basic and commonly used workflow analysis method that can help highlight areas
in need of streamlining.
In this Assignment, you select a common event that occurs
regularly in your organization and create a flowchart representing the
workflow. You analyze the process you have diagrammed and propose changes for
improvement.
To prepare:
Identify a common, simple event that frequently occurs in
your organization that you would like to evaluate.
Consider how you would design a flowchart to represent the
current workflow.
Consider what metrics you would use to determine the
effectiveness of the current workflow and identify areas of waste.
To complete:
Write a 3- to 5-page paper which includes the following:
Create a simple flowchart of the activity you selected.
(Review the Sample Workflow of Answering a Telephone in an Office document
found in this week’s Learning Resources for an example.)
Next, in your paper:
Explain the process you have diagrammed.
For each step or decision point in the process, identify the
following:
Who does this step? (It can be several people.)
What technology is used?
What policies and rules are involved in determining how,
when, why, or where the step is executed?
What information is needed for the execution of this step?
Describe the metric that is currently used to measure the
soundness of the workflow. Is it effective?
Describe any areas where improvements could occur and
propose changes that could bring about these improvements in the workflow.
Summarize why it is important to be aware of the flow of an
activity.
Remember to include a cover page, introduction, and summary
for your paper

NURS6051 Week 6 Discussion

NURS6051 Week 6 Discussion

NURS6051 Week 6 Discussion

Walden nurs6051 week 6 discussion.

walden_nurs6051_week_6_discussion_latest_2017_october_.docx (89.61 KB)

Week 6 discussion Successful Implementation of Electronic Health Information Technology
Since the inception of the HITECH Act, health organizations
have faced increased pressure to update their health information technology
(HIT) resources. As discussed last week, many believe that the increased use of
electronic health records and the quick and efficient communication afforded by
HIT can lead to improved quality of patient care. Yet there are significant
costs associated with implementing such systems. What can organizations do to
ensure that the correct system is selected and that the system will be
appropriate for those required to use it? Who should be involved in those
decisions?
This week introduces the systems development life cycle and
discusses how it can guide an organization through the complexities of adopting
a new HIT system. In this Discussion, you are asked to consider the role of
nurses in the SDLC process.
To prepare:
Review the steps of the systems development life cycle.
Think about your own organization, or one with which you are
familiar, and the steps the organization goes through when purchasing and
implementing a new HIT system.
Consider what a nurse could contribute to decisions made at
each stage when planning for new health information technology. What might be
the consequences of not involving nurses?
Reflect on your own experiences with your organization
selecting and implementing new technology. As an end user, do you feel you had
any input in the selection or and planning of the new HIT system?
By Day 3
Post an analysis of
the ramifications of an organization not involving nurses in each stage of the
systems development life cycle when purchasing and implementing a new HIT
system. Give specific examples of potential issues at each stage and how the
inclusion of nurses could help avoid such issues.
By Day 6
Respond to at least two of your colleagues on two different
days using one or more of the following approaches:
Ask a probing question, substantiated with additional
background information, evidence or research.
Share an insight from having read your colleagues’ postings,
synthesizing the information to provide new perspectives.
Offer and support an alternative perspective using readings
from the classroom or from your own research in the Walden Library.
Validate an idea with your own experience and additional
research.
Make a suggestion based on additional evidence drawn from
readings or after synthesizing multiple postings.
Expand on your colleagues’ postings by providing additional
insights or contrasting perspectives based on readings and evidence.

Walden NURS6501

Nurs6501 all quizzes latest

Nurs6501 all quizzes latest

Quiz 1

Question 1
A 20-year-old pregnant female gives birth to a stillborn child. Autopsy reveals that the fetus has 92 chromosomes. What term may be on the autopsy report to describe this condition?
Question 2
A group of prison inmates developed tuberculosis following
exposure to an infected inmate. On examination, tissues were soft and granular
(like clumped cheese). Which of the following is the most likely cause?
Question 3
A runner has depleted all the oxygen available for muscle
energy. Which of the following will facilitate his continued muscle
performance?
Question 4
The student is reviewing functions of the cell. The student
would be correct in identifying the primary function of the nerve cell as:
Question 5
Sodium and water accumulation in an injured cell are a
direct result of:
Question 6
A nurse is teaching a patient with diabetes how glucose is
transported from the blood to the cell. What type of transport system should
the nurse discuss with the patient?
Question 7
Why is potassium able to diffuse easily in and out of cells?
Question 8
A patient who has diarrhea receives a hypertonic saline
solution intravenously to replace the sodium and chloride lost in the stool.
What effect will this fluid replacement have on cells?
Question 9
The nurse would be correct in identifying the predominant
extracellular cation as:
Question 10
A newborn male is diagnosed with albinism based on skin,
eye, and hair appearance. Which finding will support this diagnosis?
Question 11
A nurse is reading a chart and sees the term oncotic
pressure. The nurse recalls that oncotic pressure (colloid osmotic pressure) is
determined by:
Question 12
A patient wants to know the risk factors for Down syndrome.
What is the nurse’s best response?
Question 13
Which of the following mutations have the most significant
effect on protein synthesis?
Question 14
What is the diagnosis of a 13-year-old female who has a
karyotype that reveals an absent homologous X chromosome with only a single X
chromosome present? Her features include a short stature, widely spaced
nipples, reduced carrying angle at the elbow, and sparse body hair.
Question 15
A 55-year-old male with a 30-year history of smoking is
examined for respiratory disturbance. Examination of his airway (bronchial)
reveals that stratified squamous epithelial cells have replaced the normal
columnar ciliated cells. This type of cellular adaptation is called:

Week 2 quiz
Question 1
The incidence of fractures of the pelvis is highest in:
Question 2
The nurse would expect the occurrence of scabies to occur
more commonly among children who:
Question 3
A 51-year-old male experienced severe acute gouty arthritis.
Which of the following is the most common trigger for the symptoms?
Question 4
A patient has chicken pox. How does the varicella replicate?
Question 5
A 70-year-old female presents with a hip fracture secondary
to osteoporosis. This condition is caused by an increase in bone:
Question 6
Researchers now believe that RA is:
Question 7
A 40-year-old female is diagnosed with SLE. Which of the
following findings would be considered a symptom of this disease?
Question 8
After studying about fungi, which information indicates a
correct understanding of fungi? Fungi causing deep or systemic infections:
Question 9
A 5-year-old female takes a hike through the woods during a
school field trip. Upon returning home, she hugs her father, and he later
develops poison ivy. Which of the following immune reactions is he
experiencing?
Question 10
A 76-year-old female was diagnosed with osteoporosis by
radiologic exam. She is at high risk for:
Question 11
A 4-month-old female develops white spots and shallow ulcers
in her mouth. Her pediatrician diagnoses her with thrush. This condition is
caused by:
Question 12
A 50-year-old male recently underwent a liver transplant and
is taking immunosuppressive drugs. He now has painful vesicular eruptions on
the face and trunk. He reports that he had chickenpox as a child. Which of the
following is the most likely diagnosis based on his chicken pox history?
Question 13
A 4-month-old female is diagnosed with atopic dermatitis
(AD). Which of the following assessment findings by the nurse will most likely
support this diagnosis?
Question 14
In discoid lupus erythematosus, skin lesions may be
accompanied by Raynaud phenomenon, which is manifested by:
Question 15
The nurse would be correct in identifying the duration of
rubella as:

Week 3 quiz
Question 1
A 69-year-old male with a history of alcohol abuse presents
to the emergency room (ER) after a month-long episode of headaches and
confusion. Based on his alcoholism, a likely cause of his neurologic symptoms
is:
Question 2
A 40-year-old male complains of uncontrolled excessive
movement and progressive dysfunction of intellectual and thought processes. He
is experiencing movement problems that begin in the face and arms that
eventually affect the entire body. The most likely diagnosis is:
Question 3
A 60-year-old female with a recent history of head trauma
and a long-term history of hypertension presents to the ER for changes in
mental status. MRI reveals that she had a hemorrhagic stroke. What does the
nurse suspect caused this type of stroke?
Question 4
A patient with an addiction to alcohol checked into a
rehabilitation center. He experiences delirium, inability to concentrate, and
is easily distracted. From which of the following is he most likely suffering?
Question 5
When planning care for a child in pain, which principle
should the nurse remember? The pain threshold in children is _____ that of
adults.
Question 6
The nursing student would correctly identify the most common
symptom of brain abscess as:
Question 7
A nurse should document on the chart that chronic pain is
occurring when the patient reports the pain has lasted longer than:
Question 8
A nurse thinks a patient may be experiencing dementia. Which
assessment finding will most help support this diagnosis?
Question 9
A 20-year-old male was brought to the emergency room (ER)
for severe burns. He requested something for the excruciating pain he was
experiencing. Blocking which of the following neurotransmitters would reduce
his pain?
Question 10
An older adult is admitted to the ER following a fall. The
patient complains of pain in the back. The patient has a history of
osteoporosis. The nurse would expect the patient’s injury and subsequent pain
is most likely due to:
Question 11
A child presents to his primary care provider with
disorientation, delirium, aggressiveness, and stupor. His parents report that he
was recently ill with an upper respiratory infection, which they treated with
aspirin. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Question 12
A 15-month-old child from Pennsylvania was brought to the ER
for fever, seizure activity, cranial palsies, and paralysis. Which of the
following diagnosis will be documented in the chart?
Question 13
A 20-year-old male suffers a severe closed head injury in a
motor vehicle accident. He remains in a vegetative state (VS) 1 month after the
accident. Which of the following structures is most likely keeping the patient
alive?
Question 14
A 15-year-old male was struck by a motor vehicle and
suffered a traumatic brain injury. Paramedics found him unconscious at the
scene of the accident. During the ambulance ride, he regained consciousness and
was able to maintain a conversation with the medical staff. Upon arrival to
hospital, he was alert and oriented. Physical exam reveals confusion and
impaired responsiveness. What is the probable nature of his brain injury based
on this history?
Question 15
Parents of a 3-month-old infant bring him to the emergency
room (ER) after he has had a seizure. He has muscle rigidity, and the parents
report they are of Jewish ancestry. For what genetic disease should this infant
be screened?

Week 4 quiz
Question 1
Which of the following findings in the patient with Raynaud
disease would indicate a need for further teaching?
Question 2
A patient wants to know what causes atherosclerosis. How
should the nurse respond? In general, atherosclerosis is caused by:
Question 3
A 28-year-old female presents with severe chest pain and
shortness of breath. She is diagnosed with pulmonary embolism, which most
likely originated from the:
Question 4
Which characteristic changes should the nurse keep in mind
while caring for a patient with left heart failure? As left heart failure
progresses:
Question 5
A 50-year-old male visits the cardiologist for an EKG.
Results indicate that he has no PR interval and a variable QRS rate with rhythm
irregularity. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis to be
recorded on the chart?
Question 6
A 60-year-old male is diagnosed with cerebral aneurysm.
Where does the nurse suspect the cerebral aneurysm is located?
Question 7
A 50-year-old female received trauma to the chest that
caused severe impairment of the primary pacemaker cells of the heart. Which of
the following areas received the greatest damage?
Question 8
When a patient has a massive pulmonary embolism (PE), what
complications will the nurse monitor for?
Question 9
While planning care for a patient with superior vena cava
syndrome (SVCS), which principle should the nurse remember? SVCS is a
progressive _____ of the superior vena cava (SVC) that leads to venous
distention of the upper extremities and head.
Question 10
Which condition should cause the nurse to assess for
high-output failure in a patient?
Question 11
A 75-year-old female has been critically ill with multiple
organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) for longer than a week and has developed a
severe oxygen supply and demand imbalance. The statement that best describes
this imbalance is which of the following?
.
Question 12
A 50-year-old female presents with a low heart rate and low
blood pressure. She is given an intravenous (IV) infusion of fluids. The
increase in atrial distension results in:
Question 13
A 32-year-old female presents with lower leg pain, with
swelling and redness. While obtaining the patient’s history, which finding
could have caused her condition?
Question 14
A 50-year-old male with a 30-year history of smoking was
diagnosed with bronchogenic cancer. He developed edema and venous distention in
the upper extremities and face. Which of the following diagnosis will the nurse
observe on the chart?
Question 15
A 51-year-old male is at the health clinic for an annual
physical exam. After walking from the car to the clinic, he developed
substernal pain. He also reported discomfort in his left shoulder and his jaw,
lasting 2 to 3 minutes and then subsiding with rest. He indicates that this has
occurred frequently over the past few months with similar exertion. The nurse
suspects he is most likely experiencing:

Week 5 quiz
Question 1
A nurse is planning care for a patient in shock. Which
principle should the nurse remember? During shock states, glucose uptake is
usually:
Question 2
A 20-year-old male underwent an echocardiogram to assess
chest pain. Results revealed a congenital defect in papillary muscles. Which of
the following would the nurse expect to occur?
Question 3
A 75-year-old male has severe chest pain and dials 911. Lab
tests at the hospital reveal elevated levels of cardiac troponins I and T.
Based upon the lab findings, the nurse suspects which of the following has
occurred?
Question 4
A 67-year-old female was previously diagnosed with rheumatic
heart disease. Tests reveal lipoprotein deposition with chronic inflammation
that impairs blood flow from the left ventricle into the aorta. Which of the
following is the most likely diagnosis recorded on the chart?
Question 5
A 20-year-old female is being admitted to the hospital with
fever and septic shock. Which set of assessment findings would the nurse expect
the patient to exhibit?
Question 6
A newborn is diagnosed with congenital heart disease. Which
of the following intrauterine factors should the nurse focus on during the
history that could have caused this disorder?
Question 7
A 50-year-old male was admitted to the intensive care unit
with a diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction (MI). He is being treated for
shock. His cardiopulmonary symptoms include low blood pressure, tachycardia,
and tachypnea. His skin is pale and cool. The primary cause of his shock is
most likely:
Question 8
A newborn is suspected of having coarctation of the aorta.
Which of the following assessments would aid in diagnosis?
Question 9
A 56-year-old male presents to his primary care provider for
a checkup. Physical exam reveals edema, hepatomegaly, and muffled heart sounds.
Which of the following is of greatest concern to the nurse?
Question 10
A 2-week-old infant presents with poor feeding, fatigue,
dyspnea, and a murmur. She is diagnosed with a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA).
A nurse recalls this condition results in a(n):
Question 11
When a person is in shock, a nurse remembers impairment in
cellular metabolism is cause by:
Question 12
When a patient asks the nurse what is the most common cause
of myocardial ischemia, which statement is the correct response? The most
common cause of myocardial ischemia is:
Question 13
While planning care, the nurse remembers which principle? In
valvular _____, the valve opening is constricted and narrowed because the valve
leaflets, or cusps, fail to open completely.
Question 14
What factors make a patient prone to neurogenic shock?
Neurogenic shock can be caused by any factor that inhibits the:
Question 15
A nurse is teaching a patient about anaphylactic shock.
Which information should the nurse include? The onset of anaphylactic shock is
usually:

Week 6 quiz
Question 1
While planning care for a child with asthma, which of the
following is characteristic of asthma?
Question 2
Which patient would the nurse assess for paroxysmal
nocturnal dyspnea (PND)? A patient with:
Question 3
A 42-year-old female presents with dyspnea; rapid, shallow
breathing; inspiratory crackles; decreased lung compliance; and hypoxemia.
Tests reveal a fulminant form of respiratory failure characterized by acute
lung inflammation and diffuse alveolocapillary injury. Which of the following
is the most likely diagnosis the nurse will observe on the chart?
Question 4
A 65-year-old male recently had a cerebrovascular accident
that resulted in dysphagia. He now has aspiration of gastric contents. The
nurse assesses the patient for which complication?
Question 5
A nurse recalls asthma is classified by:
Question 6
While reviewing lab results, to help confirm a diagnosis of
cystic fibrosis in a 1-year-old child which substance will be present in the
child’s sweat?
Question 7
A geneticist is discussing cystic fibrosis (CF). Which
information should be included? CF is an _____ disease.
Question 8
When the nurse observes a diagnosis of nosocomial pneumonia,
the patient generally acquires this pneumonia:
Question 9
A 14-year-old male is experiencing an asthma exacerbation.
When reviewing the lab results, which of the following cells in the submucosa
promote this inflammatory response and will be elevated?
Question 10
A 50-year-old male with a 30-year history of smoking was diagnosed
with lung cancer. He was previously exposed to air pollution, asbestos, and
radiation at his job. Which of the following should the nurse realize had the
greatest impact on the development of his cancer?
Question 11
A 13-year-old female is diagnosed with asthma. Which of the
following should the nurse teach the patient to recognize as part of an
asthmatic attack?
Question 12
A 50-year-old diabetic male did not take his medication and
is now in metabolic acidosis. He is experiencing Kussmaul respirations. What
type of breathing will the nurse observe upon assessment?
Question 13
An 11-year-old female presents with a low-grade fever and
cough. She is diagnosed with atypical pneumonia. What type of pneumonia does
the nurse suspect the patient is experiencing?
Question 14
A 6-month-old female presents with rhinorrhea, cough, poor
feeding, lethargy, and fever. She is diagnosed with bronchiolitis. Which of the
following will the nurse most likely observe on the culture report?
Question 15
A 60-year-old female with emphysema is having difficulty
expiring a given volume of air. When giving report, the nurse will relay that
the patient is most likely experiencing _____ pulmonary disease.

Week 7 quiz
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a patient who cannot clot. Which end
product of the clotting cascade is this patient unable to make?
Question 2
A 25-year-old female has a heavy menses during which she
loses a profuse amount of blood. Which of the following adaptations should the
nurse expect?
Question 3
A staff member wants to know where the greatest proportion
of iron is located. How should the nurse respond? The greatest proportion of
total body iron is located in the:
Question 4
A 65-year-old male experienced loss of appetite, weight
loss, lemon-yellow skin, liver enlargement, and a beefy red tongue shortly
before his death. Autopsy suggested pernicious anemia, and the cause of death
would most likely reveal:
Question 5
While reviewing lab results, the nurse recalls the most
abundant cells in the blood are:
Question 6
A nurse is teaching the staff about platelets. Which
information should the nurse include? In addition to playing a role in
hemostasis, platelets have the ability to:
Question 7
A 45-year-old male is diagnosed with macrocytic,
normochromic anemia. The nurse suspects the most likely cause of this condition
is:
Question 8
A 34-year-old male presents in the emergency room with
extreme fatigue and shortness of breath. His skin and sclera appear to have a
yellowish discoloration. These assessment findings are consistent with which
type of anemia?
Question 9
A group of cells isolated in the laboratory have
membrane-bound granules in their cytoplasm and they show phagocytic activity.
Which of the following cells is most similar?
Question 10
A 10-year-old male presents with abdominal swelling, night
sweats, fever, and weight loss. He is diagnosed with Burkitt lymphoma. Upon
obtaining the history, which of the following is the most likely cause?
Question 11
A 10-year-old male is diagnosed with sickle cell anemia.
When the parents ask who is responsible for this disease, what is the nurse’s
best response? He most likely inherited it from:
Question 12
For a patient experiencing hypersplenism, the nurse expects
the erythrocytes to be:
Question 13
Thrombocytopenia may be:
Question 14
In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), the nurse
assesses for active bleeding after intravascular clotting because:
Question 15
A 10-year-old male is diagnosed with leukemia. The nurse
assesses for which other condition that could be associated with his disease?

Week 8 quiz
Question 1
For the patient experiencing esophageal reflux, the nurse
would expect which sphincter to be malfunctioning?
Question 2
The most common disorder associated with upper GI bleeding
is:
Question 3
A 27-year-old male presents with fever, GI bleeding,
hepatomegaly, and transient joint pain. He reports that as a child he received
blood transfusions following a motor vehicle accident. He also indicates he was
vaccinated against hepatitis B. Which of the following types of hepatitis does
the clinician think he most likely has?
Question 4
A 55-year-old male died in a motor vehicle accident. Autopsy
revealed an enlarged liver caused by fatty infiltration, testicular atrophy,
and mild jaundice secondary to cirrhosis. The most likely cause of his
condition is:
Question 5
Acute pancreatitis often manifests with pain to which of the
following regions?
Question 6
The primary complication of enterocolitis associated with
Hirschsprung disease is related to which finding?
Question 7
The most common clinical manifestation of portal
hypertension is _____ bleeding.
Question 8
The exocrine portion of the pancreas contains:
Question 9
The cardinal signs of small bowel obstruction are:
Question 10
Reflux esophagitis is defined as a(n):
Question 11
Marasmus is most common in children of which age group?
Question 12
Manifestations associated with hepatic encephalopathy from
chronic liver disease are the result of:
Question 13
A 50-year-old male is experiencing reflux of chyme from the
stomach. He is diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux. This condition is caused
by:
Question 14
Kwashiorkor is a severe dietary deficiency of:
Question 15
A 40-year-old male develops an intestinal obstruction
related to protrusion of the intestine through the inguinal ring. This
condition is referred to as:
 
Week 9 quiz
Question 1
A patient has high levels of hormones. To adapt to the high
hormone concentrations, the patient’s target cells have the capacity for:
Question 2
A patient has researched lipid-soluble hormones on the
Internet. Which information indicates the patient has a good understanding?
Lipid-soluble hormone receptors cross the plasma membrane by:
Question 3
A 50-year-old female presents with lightheadedness and
overall abnormal feelings. Hyperaldosteronism is diagnosed. Which of the
following symptoms would the nurse expect?
Question 4
A 12-year-old female is newly diagnosed with type 1 DM. When
the parents ask what causes this, what is the nurse’s best response?
Question 5
0 out of 1 points
A 30-year-old male was diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Synthesis
of which of the following would decrease in this patient?
Question 6
A 22-year-old male is admitted to the intensive care unit
with a closed head injury sustained in a motorcycle accident. The injury has
caused severe damage to the posterior pituitary. Which of the following
complications should the nurse anticipate?
Question 7
If the patient has a problem with the pineal gland, which
substance would the nurse monitor?
Question 8
0 out of 1 points
A 50-year-old male patient is deficient in ADH production.
Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse expect to find?
Question 9
A 54-year-old patient with pulmonary tuberculosis (lung
infection) is evaluated for syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH).
Which of the following electrolyte imbalances would be expected in this
patient?
Question 10
When catecholamines are released in a patient, what should
the nurse assess for?
Question 11
An endocrinologist isolated a new hormone and found it to be
a water-soluble amine. Which of the following is most like this new hormone?
Question 12
A 30-year-old male is diagnosed with a hormone-secreting
tumor of the pancreas alpha cells. Which of the following would the nurse
expect to be most likely increased in this patient?
Question 13
A 25-year-old male presents with fatigue, constipation, and
sexual dysfunction. Tests reveal all pituitary hormones are normal and no
masses are present. The nurse suspects the most likely cause of his symptoms is
a dysfunction in the:
Question 14
A 25-year-old female with Graves disease is admitted to a
medical-surgical unit. Palpation of her neck would most likely reveal:
Question 15
A 12-year-old male is newly diagnosed with type 1 DM. Which
of the following tests should the nurse prepare the patient to best confirm the
diagnosis?

Week 10 quiz
Question 1
A 15-year-old female presents with flank pain, irritability,
malaise, and fever. Tests reveal glomerulonephritis. When the parents ask what
could have caused this, how should the nurse respond?
Question 2
A 60-year-old male is diagnosed with renal failure. While
the nurse is reviewing lab results, which of the following lab values would be
most consistent with this diagnosis?
Question 3
A 7-year-old male presents to his primary care provider for
incontinence. His mother indicates that he has never been continent. Which of
the following is the most likely diagnosis the nurse will observe on the chart?
Question 4
If a nurse wants to obtain the best estimate of renal
function, which test should the nurse monitor?
Question 5
When a patient’s renal system secretes rennin, what effect
will that cause in the body? It causes the direct activation of:
Question 6
A 29-year-old female presents with cloudy urine, flank pain,
hematuria, and fever. Which of the following does the nurse suspect the patient
is most likely experiencing?
Question 7
A urologist is discussing the phagocytic cells that lie
between the layers of the renal corpuscle. What is the urologist describing?
Question 8
While turning a patient with chronic renal failure, which
principle should the nurse recall? Bone fractures are a risk factor in chronic
renal failure because:
Question 9
A 42-year-old male is involved in a motor vehicle accident
during which he loses a lot of blood. The nurse realizes he is in acute renal
failure caused by:
Question 10
A nurse is describing the trigone. Which information should
be included? The trigone is defined as:
Question 11
A 6-year-old male is experiencing urine reflux from the
urinary bladder into a grossly dilated ureter and calyces. He was diagnosed
with vesicoureteral reflux. This condition would be graded:
Question 12
When the nurse discusses the glomerulus and Bowman capsule
together, it is referred to as the renal:
Question 13
On average the kidneys receive approximately _____ of the
cardiac output.
Question 14
A 55-year-old male presents reporting urinary retention.
Tests reveal that he has a lower urinary tract obstruction. Which of the
following is of most concern to the nurse?
Question 15
A urologist is discussing a structure that supplies blood to
the medulla. What is the urologist describing?

Week 11 quiz
Question 1
A 68-year-old male presents complaining of difficulty having
sexual intercourse. He reports that his penis curves during erection. This
condition is referred to as:
Question 2
A 25-year-old sexually active female presents with
urethritis, dysuria, and cervical discharge. She is diagnosed with the most
common bacteria STI in the United States. The student would identify this
infection is due to:
Question 3
A middle-aged male speaks to his physician about benign BPH.
He reveals that his father was recently diagnosed with this condition, and he
wants to know if he could have it. The physician tells him that a common
complaint from men with mild to moderate BPH is:
Question 4
When a patient who is trying to get pregnant asks where the
usual site of fertilization is, how should the nurse respond? The:
Question 5
An example of a parasitic STI that is transmitted through
close skin-to-skin contact is:
Question 6
The nurse would anticipate the treatment for pelvic organ
prolapse to be:
Question 7
When a staff member asks the nurse what the thick middle
layer of the uterine wall is called, what is the nurse’s best response? The:
Question 8
Copy of The nurse would anticipate the treatment for pelvic
organ prolapse to be:
Question 9
When discussing the difference between male and female sex
hormones, which information should the nurse include? The major difference
between male and female sex hormone production is that:
Question 10
During a routine pelvic exam, a 34-year-old female is found
to have an ovarian cyst containing skin, hair, cartilage, and bone. This cyst
is classified as a _____ cyst.
Question 11
A 30-year-old male presents with penile tenderness and
discharge. Physical examination reveals that his foreskin cannot be retracted
back over the glans penis. He is suffering from:
Question 12
Which information indicates the nurse has a good
understanding of the menstrual cycle? When estrogen and progesterone levels
drop, the endometrium enters the _____ phase.
Question 13
Which of the following signs is usually the first clinical
manifestation of breast cancer?
Question 14
A nurse is discussing female anatomy. Which body structure
contains the openings to the vagina and urinary meatus?
Question 15
The patient’s medication has a side effect of gynecomastia.
The patient asks the nurse to define this term. The nurse would respond that
gynecomastia is:

Quiz 1
Question 1
A 20-year-old pregnant female gives birth to a stillborn
child. Autopsy reveals that the fetus has 92 chromosomes. What term may be on
the autopsy report to describe this condition?
Question 2
A group of prison inmates developed tuberculosis following
exposure to an infected inmate. On examination, tissues were soft and granular
(like clumped cheese). Which of the following is the most likely cause?
Question 3
A runner has depleted all the oxygen available for muscle
energy. Which of the following will facilitate his continued muscle
performance?
Question 4
The student is reviewing functions of the cell. The student
would be correct in identifying the primary function of the nerve cell as:
Question 5
Sodium and water accumulation in an injured cell are a
direct result of:
Question 6
A nurse is teaching a patient with diabetes how glucose is
transported from the blood to the cell. What type of transport system should
the nurse discuss with the patient?
Question 7
Why is potassium able to diffuse easily in and out of cells?
Question 8
A patient who has diarrhea receives a hypertonic saline
solution intravenously to replace the sodium and chloride lost in the stool.
What effect will this fluid replacement have on cells?
Question 9
The nurse would be correct in identifying the predominant
extracellular cation as:
Question 10
A newborn male is diagnosed with albinism based on skin,
eye, and hair appearance. Which finding will support this diagnosis?
Question 11
A nurse is reading a chart and sees the term oncotic
pressure. The nurse recalls that oncotic pressure (colloid osmotic pressure) is
determined by:
Question 12
A patient wants to know the risk factors for Down syndrome.
What is the nurse’s best response?
Question 13
Which of the following mutations have the most significant
effect on protein synthesis?
Question 14
What is the diagnosis of a 13-year-old female who has a
karyotype that reveals an absent homologous X chromosome with only a single X
chromosome present? Her features include a short stature, widely spaced
nipples, reduced carrying angle at the elbow, and sparse body hair.
Question 15
A 55-year-old male with a 30-year history of smoking is
examined for respiratory disturbance. Examination of his airway (bronchial)
reveals that stratified squamous epithelial cells have replaced the normal
columnar ciliated cells. This type of cellular adaptation is called:

Week 2 quiz
Question 1
The incidence of fractures of the pelvis is highest in:
Question 2
The nurse would expect the occurrence of scabies to occur
more commonly among children who:
Question 3
A 51-year-old male experienced severe acute gouty arthritis.
Which of the following is the most common trigger for the symptoms?
Question 4
A patient has chicken pox. How does the varicella replicate?
Question 5
A 70-year-old female presents with a hip fracture secondary
to osteoporosis. This condition is caused by an increase in bone:
Question 6
Researchers now believe that RA is:
Question 7
A 40-year-old female is diagnosed with SLE. Which of the
following findings would be considered a symptom of this disease?
Question 8
After studying about fungi, which information indicates a
correct understanding of fungi? Fungi causing deep or systemic infections:
Question 9
A 5-year-old female takes a hike through the woods during a
school field trip. Upon returning home, she hugs her father, and he later
develops poison ivy. Which of the following immune reactions is he
experiencing?
Question 10
A 76-year-old female was diagnosed with osteoporosis by
radiologic exam. She is at high risk for:
Question 11
A 4-month-old female develops white spots and shallow ulcers
in her mouth. Her pediatrician diagnoses her with thrush. This condition is
caused by:
Question 12
A 50-year-old male recently underwent a liver transplant and
is taking immunosuppressive drugs. He now has painful vesicular eruptions on
the face and trunk. He reports that he had chickenpox as a child. Which of the
following is the most likely diagnosis based on his chicken pox history?
Question 13
A 4-month-old female is diagnosed with atopic dermatitis
(AD). Which of the following assessment findings by the nurse will most likely
support this diagnosis?
Question 14
In discoid lupus erythematosus, skin lesions may be
accompanied by Raynaud phenomenon, which is manifested by:
Question 15
The nurse would be correct in identifying the duration of
rubella as:

Week 3 quiz
Question 1
A 69-year-old male with a history of alcohol abuse presents
to the emergency room (ER) after a month-long episode of headaches and
confusion. Based on his alcoholism, a likely cause of his neurologic symptoms
is:
Question 2
A 40-year-old male complains of uncontrolled excessive
movement and progressive dysfunction of intellectual and thought processes. He
is experiencing movement problems that begin in the face and arms that
eventually affect the entire body. The most likely diagnosis is:
Question 3
A 60-year-old female with a recent history of head trauma
and a long-term history of hypertension presents to the ER for changes in
mental status. MRI reveals that she had a hemorrhagic stroke. What does the
nurse suspect caused this type of stroke?
Question 4
A patient with an addiction to alcohol checked into a
rehabilitation center. He experiences delirium, inability to concentrate, and
is easily distracted. From which of the following is he most likely suffering?
Question 5
When planning care for a child in pain, which principle
should the nurse remember? The pain threshold in children is _____ that of
adults.
Question 6
The nursing student would correctly identify the most common
symptom of brain abscess as:
Question 7
A nurse should document on the chart that chronic pain is
occurring when the patient reports the pain has lasted longer than:
Question 8
A nurse thinks a patient may be experiencing dementia. Which
assessment finding will most help support this diagnosis?
Question 9
A 20-year-old male was brought to the emergency room (ER)
for severe burns. He requested something for the excruciating pain he was
experiencing. Blocking which of the following neurotransmitters would reduce
his pain?
Question 10
An older adult is admitted to the ER following a fall. The
patient complains of pain in the back. The patient has a history of
osteoporosis. The nurse would expect the patient’s injury and subsequent pain
is most likely due to:
Question 11
A child presents to his primary care provider with
disorientation, delirium, aggressiveness, and stupor. His parents report that he
was recently ill with an upper respiratory infection, which they treated with
aspirin. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Question 12
A 15-month-old child from Pennsylvania was brought to the ER
for fever, seizure activity, cranial palsies, and paralysis. Which of the
following diagnosis will be documented in the chart?
Question 13
A 20-year-old male suffers a severe closed head injury in a
motor vehicle accident. He remains in a vegetative state (VS) 1 month after the
accident. Which of the following structures is most likely keeping the patient
alive?
Question 14
A 15-year-old male was struck by a motor vehicle and
suffered a traumatic brain injury. Paramedics found him unconscious at the
scene of the accident. During the ambulance ride, he regained consciousness and
was able to maintain a conversation with the medical staff. Upon arrival to
hospital, he was alert and oriented. Physical exam reveals confusion and
impaired responsiveness. What is the probable nature of his brain injury based
on this history?
Question 15
Parents of a 3-month-old infant bring him to the emergency
room (ER) after he has had a seizure. He has muscle rigidity, and the parents
report they are of Jewish ancestry. For what genetic disease should this infant
be screened?

Week 4 quiz
Question 1
Which of the following findings in the patient with Raynaud
disease would indicate a need for further teaching?
Question 2
A patient wants to know what causes atherosclerosis. How
should the nurse respond? In general, atherosclerosis is caused by:
Question 3
A 28-year-old female presents with severe chest pain and
shortness of breath. She is diagnosed with pulmonary embolism, which most
likely originated from the:
Question 4
Which characteristic changes should the nurse keep in mind
while caring for a patient with left heart failure? As left heart failure
progresses:
Question 5
A 50-year-old male visits the cardiologist for an EKG.
Results indicate that he has no PR interval and a variable QRS rate with rhythm
irregularity. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis to be
recorded on the chart?
Question 6
A 60-year-old male is diagnosed with cerebral aneurysm.
Where does the nurse suspect the cerebral aneurysm is located?
Question 7
A 50-year-old female received trauma to the chest that
caused severe impairment of the primary pacemaker cells of the heart. Which of
the following areas received the greatest damage?
Question 8
When a patient has a massive pulmonary embolism (PE), what
complications will the nurse monitor for?
Question 9
While planning care for a patient with superior vena cava
syndrome (SVCS), which principle should the nurse remember? SVCS is a
progressive _____ of the superior vena cava (SVC) that leads to venous
distention of the upper extremities and head.
Question 10
Which condition should cause the nurse to assess for
high-output failure in a patient?
Question 11
A 75-year-old female has been critically ill with multiple
organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) for longer than a week and has developed a
severe oxygen supply and demand imbalance. The statement that best describes
this imbalance is which of the following?
.
Question 12
A 50-year-old female presents with a low heart rate and low
blood pressure. She is given an intravenous (IV) infusion of fluids. The
increase in atrial distension results in:
Question 13
A 32-year-old female presents with lower leg pain, with
swelling and redness. While obtaining the patient’s history, which finding
could have caused her condition?
Question 14
A 50-year-old male with a 30-year history of smoking was
diagnosed with bronchogenic cancer. He developed edema and venous distention in
the upper extremities and face. Which of the following diagnosis will the nurse
observe on the chart?
Question 15
A 51-year-old male is at the health clinic for an annual
physical exam. After walking from the car to the clinic, he developed
substernal pain. He also reported discomfort in his left shoulder and his jaw,
lasting 2 to 3 minutes and then subsiding with rest. He indicates that this has
occurred frequently over the past few months with similar exertion. The nurse
suspects he is most likely experiencing:

Week 5 quiz
Question 1
A nurse is planning care for a patient in shock. Which
principle should the nurse remember? During shock states, glucose uptake is
usually:
Question 2
A 20-year-old male underwent an echocardiogram to assess
chest pain. Results revealed a congenital defect in papillary muscles. Which of
the following would the nurse expect to occur?
Question 3
A 75-year-old male has severe chest pain and dials 911. Lab
tests at the hospital reveal elevated levels of cardiac troponins I and T.
Based upon the lab findings, the nurse suspects which of the following has
occurred?
Question 4
A 67-year-old female was previously diagnosed with rheumatic
heart disease. Tests reveal lipoprotein deposition with chronic inflammation
that impairs blood flow from the left ventricle into the aorta. Which of the
following is the most likely diagnosis recorded on the chart?
Question 5
A 20-year-old female is being admitted to the hospital with
fever and septic shock. Which set of assessment findings would the nurse expect
the patient to exhibit?
Question 6
A newborn is diagnosed with congenital heart disease. Which
of the following intrauterine factors should the nurse focus on during the
history that could have caused this disorder?
Question 7
A 50-year-old male was admitted to the intensive care unit
with a diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction (MI). He is being treated for
shock. His cardiopulmonary symptoms include low blood pressure, tachycardia,
and tachypnea. His skin is pale and cool. The primary cause of his shock is
most likely:
Question 8
A newborn is suspected of having coarctation of the aorta.
Which of the following assessments would aid in diagnosis?
Question 9
A 56-year-old male presents to his primary care provider for
a checkup. Physical exam reveals edema, hepatomegaly, and muffled heart sounds.
Which of the following is of greatest concern to the nurse?
Question 10
A 2-week-old infant presents with poor feeding, fatigue,
dyspnea, and a murmur. She is diagnosed with a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA).
A nurse recalls this condition results in a(n):
Question 11
When a person is in shock, a nurse remembers impairment in
cellular metabolism is cause by:
Question 12
When a patient asks the nurse what is the most common cause
of myocardial ischemia, which statement is the correct response? The most
common cause of myocardial ischemia is:
Question 13
While planning care, the nurse remembers which principle? In
valvular _____, the valve opening is constricted and narrowed because the valve
leaflets, or cusps, fail to open completely.
Question 14
What factors make a patient prone to neurogenic shock?
Neurogenic shock can be caused by any factor that inhibits the:
Question 15
A nurse is teaching a patient about anaphylactic shock.
Which information should the nurse include? The onset of anaphylactic shock is
usually:

Week 6 quiz
Question 1
While planning care for a child with asthma, which of the
following is characteristic of asthma?
Question 2
Which patient would the nurse assess for paroxysmal
nocturnal dyspnea (PND)? A patient with:
Question 3
A 42-year-old female presents with dyspnea; rapid, shallow
breathing; inspiratory crackles; decreased lung compliance; and hypoxemia.
Tests reveal a fulminant form of respiratory failure characterized by acute
lung inflammation and diffuse alveolocapillary injury. Which of the following
is the most likely diagnosis the nurse will observe on the chart?
Question 4
A 65-year-old male recently had a cerebrovascular accident
that resulted in dysphagia. He now has aspiration of gastric contents. The
nurse assesses the patient for which complication?
Question 5
A nurse recalls asthma is classified by:
Question 6
While reviewing lab results, to help confirm a diagnosis of
cystic fibrosis in a 1-year-old child which substance will be present in the
child’s sweat?
Question 7
A geneticist is discussing cystic fibrosis (CF). Which
information should be included? CF is an _____ disease.
Question 8
When the nurse observes a diagnosis of nosocomial pneumonia,
the patient generally acquires this pneumonia:
Question 9
A 14-year-old male is experiencing an asthma exacerbation.
When reviewing the lab results, which of the following cells in the submucosa
promote this inflammatory response and will be elevated?
Question 10
A 50-year-old male with a 30-year history of smoking was diagnosed
with lung cancer. He was previously exposed to air pollution, asbestos, and
radiation at his job. Which of the following should the nurse realize had the
greatest impact on the development of his cancer?
Question 11
A 13-year-old female is diagnosed with asthma. Which of the
following should the nurse teach the patient to recognize as part of an
asthmatic attack?
Question 12
A 50-year-old diabetic male did not take his medication and
is now in metabolic acidosis. He is experiencing Kussmaul respirations. What
type of breathing will the nurse observe upon assessment?
Question 13
An 11-year-old female presents with a low-grade fever and
cough. She is diagnosed with atypical pneumonia. What type of pneumonia does
the nurse suspect the patient is experiencing?
Question 14
A 6-month-old female presents with rhinorrhea, cough, poor
feeding, lethargy, and fever. She is diagnosed with bronchiolitis. Which of the
following will the nurse most likely observe on the culture report?
Question 15
A 60-year-old female with emphysema is having difficulty
expiring a given volume of air. When giving report, the nurse will relay that
the patient is most likely experiencing _____ pulmonary disease.

Week 7 quiz
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a patient who cannot clot. Which end
product of the clotting cascade is this patient unable to make?
Question 2
A 25-year-old female has a heavy menses during which she
loses a profuse amount of blood. Which of the following adaptations should the
nurse expect?
Question 3
A staff member wants to know where the greatest proportion
of iron is located. How should the nurse respond? The greatest proportion of
total body iron is located in the:
Question 4
A 65-year-old male experienced loss of appetite, weight
loss, lemon-yellow skin, liver enlargement, and a beefy red tongue shortly
before his death. Autopsy suggested pernicious anemia, and the cause of death
would most likely reveal:
Question 5
While reviewing lab results, the nurse recalls the most
abundant cells in the blood are:
Question 6
A nurse is teaching the staff about platelets. Which
information should the nurse include? In addition to playing a role in
hemostasis, platelets have the ability to:
Question 7
A 45-year-old male is diagnosed with macrocytic,
normochromic anemia. The nurse suspects the most likely cause of this condition
is:
Question 8
A 34-year-old male presents in the emergency room with
extreme fatigue and shortness of breath. His skin and sclera appear to have a
yellowish discoloration. These assessment findings are consistent with which
type of anemia?
Question 9
A group of cells isolated in the laboratory have
membrane-bound granules in their cytoplasm and they show phagocytic activity.
Which of the following cells is most similar?
Question 10
A 10-year-old male presents with abdominal swelling, night
sweats, fever, and weight loss. He is diagnosed with Burkitt lymphoma. Upon
obtaining the history, which of the following is the most likely cause?
Question 11
A 10-year-old male is diagnosed with sickle cell anemia.
When the parents ask who is responsible for this disease, what is the nurse’s
best response? He most likely inherited it from:
Question 12
For a patient experiencing hypersplenism, the nurse expects
the erythrocytes to be:
Question 13
Thrombocytopenia may be:
Question 14
In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), the nurse
assesses for active bleeding after intravascular clotting because:
Question 15
A 10-year-old male is diagnosed with leukemia. The nurse
assesses for which other condition that could be associated with his disease?

Week 8 quiz
Question 1
For the patient experiencing esophageal reflux, the nurse
would expect which sphincter to be malfunctioning?
Question 2
The most common disorder associated with upper GI bleeding
is:
Question 3
A 27-year-old male presents with fever, GI bleeding,
hepatomegaly, and transient joint pain. He reports that as a child he received
blood transfusions following a motor vehicle accident. He also indicates he was
vaccinated against hepatitis B. Which of the following types of hepatitis does
the clinician think he most likely has?
Question 4
A 55-year-old male died in a motor vehicle accident. Autopsy
revealed an enlarged liver caused by fatty infiltration, testicular atrophy,
and mild jaundice secondary to cirrhosis. The most likely cause of his
condition is:
Question 5
Acute pancreatitis often manifests with pain to which of the
following regions?
Question 6
The primary complication of enterocolitis associated with
Hirschsprung disease is related to which finding?
Question 7
The most common clinical manifestation of portal
hypertension is _____ bleeding.
Question 8
The exocrine portion of the pancreas contains:
Question 9
The cardinal signs of small bowel obstruction are:
Question 10
Reflux esophagitis is defined as a(n):
Question 11
Marasmus is most common in children of which age group?
Question 12
Manifestations associated with hepatic encephalopathy from
chronic liver disease are the result of:
Question 13
A 50-year-old male is experiencing reflux of chyme from the
stomach. He is diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux. This condition is caused
by:
Question 14
Kwashiorkor is a severe dietary deficiency of:
Question 15
A 40-year-old male develops an intestinal obstruction
related to protrusion of the intestine through the inguinal ring. This
condition is referred to as:
 
Week 9 quiz
Question 1
A patient has high levels of hormones. To adapt to the high
hormone concentrations, the patient’s target cells have the capacity for:
Question 2
A patient has researched lipid-soluble hormones on the
Internet. Which information indicates the patient has a good understanding?
Lipid-soluble hormone receptors cross the plasma membrane by:
Question 3
A 50-year-old female presents with lightheadedness and
overall abnormal feelings. Hyperaldosteronism is diagnosed. Which of the
following symptoms would the nurse expect?
Question 4
A 12-year-old female is newly diagnosed with type 1 DM. When
the parents ask what causes this, what is the nurse’s best response?
Question 5
0 out of 1 points
A 30-year-old male was diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Synthesis
of which of the following would decrease in this patient?
Question 6
A 22-year-old male is admitted to the intensive care unit
with a closed head injury sustained in a motorcycle accident. The injury has
caused severe damage to the posterior pituitary. Which of the following
complications should the nurse anticipate?
Question 7
If the patient has a problem with the pineal gland, which
substance would the nurse monitor?
Question 8
0 out of 1 points
A 50-year-old male patient is deficient in ADH production.
Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse expect to find?
Question 9
A 54-year-old patient with pulmonary tuberculosis (lung
infection) is evaluated for syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH).
Which of the following electrolyte imbalances would be expected in this
patient?
Question 10
When catecholamines are released in a patient, what should
the nurse assess for?
Question 11
An endocrinologist isolated a new hormone and found it to be
a water-soluble amine. Which of the following is most like this new hormone?
Question 12
A 30-year-old male is diagnosed with a hormone-secreting
tumor of the pancreas alpha cells. Which of the following would the nurse
expect to be most likely increased in this patient?
Question 13
A 25-year-old male presents with fatigue, constipation, and
sexual dysfunction. Tests reveal all pituitary hormones are normal and no
masses are present. The nurse suspects the most likely cause of his symptoms is
a dysfunction in the:
Question 14
A 25-year-old female with Graves disease is admitted to a
medical-surgical unit. Palpation of her neck would most likely reveal:
Question 15
A 12-year-old male is newly diagnosed with type 1 DM. Which
of the following tests should the nurse prepare the patient to best confirm the
diagnosis?

Week 10 quiz
Question 1
A 15-year-old female presents with flank pain, irritability,
malaise, and fever. Tests reveal glomerulonephritis. When the parents ask what
could have caused this, how should the nurse respond?
Question 2
A 60-year-old male is diagnosed with renal failure. While
the nurse is reviewing lab results, which of the following lab values would be
most consistent with this diagnosis?
Question 3
A 7-year-old male presents to his primary care provider for
incontinence. His mother indicates that he has never been continent. Which of
the following is the most likely diagnosis the nurse will observe on the chart?
Question 4
If a nurse wants to obtain the best estimate of renal
function, which test should the nurse monitor?
Question 5
When a patient’s renal system secretes rennin, what effect
will that cause in the body? It causes the direct activation of:
Question 6
A 29-year-old female presents with cloudy urine, flank pain,
hematuria, and fever. Which of the following does the nurse suspect the patient
is most likely experiencing?
Question 7
A urologist is discussing the phagocytic cells that lie
between the layers of the renal corpuscle. What is the urologist describing?
Question 8
While turning a patient with chronic renal failure, which
principle should the nurse recall? Bone fractures are a risk factor in chronic
renal failure because:
Question 9
A 42-year-old male is involved in a motor vehicle accident
during which he loses a lot of blood. The nurse realizes he is in acute renal
failure caused by:
Question 10
A nurse is describing the trigone. Which information should
be included? The trigone is defined as:
Question 11
A 6-year-old male is experiencing urine reflux from the
urinary bladder into a grossly dilated ureter and calyces. He was diagnosed
with vesicoureteral reflux. This condition would be graded:
Question 12
When the nurse discusses the glomerulus and Bowman capsule
together, it is referred to as the renal:
Question 13
On average the kidneys receive approximately _____ of the
cardiac output.
Question 14
A 55-year-old male presents reporting urinary retention.
Tests reveal that he has a lower urinary tract obstruction. Which of the
following is of most concern to the nurse?
Question 15
A urologist is discussing a structure that supplies blood to
the medulla. What is the urologist describing?

Week 11 quiz
Question 1
A 68-year-old male presents complaining of difficulty having
sexual intercourse. He reports that his penis curves during erection. This
condition is referred to as:
Question 2
A 25-year-old sexually active female presents with
urethritis, dysuria, and cervical discharge. She is diagnosed with the most
common bacteria STI in the United States. The student would identify this
infection is due to:
Question 3
A middle-aged male speaks to his physician about benign BPH.
He reveals that his father was recently diagnosed with this condition, and he
wants to know if he could have it. The physician tells him that a common
complaint from men with mild to moderate BPH is:
Question 4
When a patient who is trying to get pregnant asks where the
usual site of fertilization is, how should the nurse respond? The:
Question 5
An example of a parasitic STI that is transmitted through
close skin-to-skin contact is:
Question 6
The nurse would anticipate the treatment for pelvic organ
prolapse to be:
Question 7
When a staff member asks the nurse what the thick middle
layer of the uterine wall is called, what is the nurse’s best response? The:
Question 8
Copy of The nurse would anticipate the treatment for pelvic
organ prolapse to be:
Question 9
When discussing the difference between male and female sex
hormones, which information should the nurse include? The major difference
between male and female sex hormone production is that:
Question 10
During a routine pelvic exam, a 34-year-old female is found
to have an ovarian cyst containing skin, hair, cartilage, and bone. This cyst
is classified as a _____ cyst.
Question 11
A 30-year-old male presents with penile tenderness and
discharge. Physical examination reveals that his foreskin cannot be retracted
back over the glans penis. He is suffering from:
Question 12
Which information indicates the nurse has a good
understanding of the menstrual cycle? When estrogen and progesterone levels
drop, the endometrium enters the _____ phase.
Question 13
Which of the following signs is usually the first clinical
manifestation of breast cancer?
Question 14
A nurse is discussing female anatomy. Which body structure
contains the openings to the vagina and urinary meatus?
Question 15
The patient’s medication has a side effect of gynecomastia.
The patient asks the nurse to define this term. The nurse would respond that
gynecomastia is:

NURS6512 Week 3 discussion

NURS6512 Week 3 discussion

Nurs6512 week 3 discussion.

week_3_discussion.docx (114.33 KB)

Week 3 discussion
Discussion: Assessment Tools and Diagnostic Tests in Adults
and Children
When seeking to identify a patient’s health condition,
advanced practice nurses can use a diverse selection of diagnostic tests and
assessment tools; however, different factors affect the validity and
reliability of the results produced by these tests or tools. Nurses must be
aware of these factors in order to select the most appropriate test or tool and
to accurately interpret the results.
Not only do these diagnostic tests affect adults, body
measurements can provide a general picture of whether a child is receiving
adequate nutrition or is at risk for health issues. These data, however, are
just one aspect to be considered. Lifestyle, family history, and culture-among
other factors-are also relevant. That said, gathering and communicating this
information can be a delicate process.
In this Discussion, you will consider the validity and
reliability of different assessment tools and diagnostic tests. You will
explore issues such as sensitivity, specificity, and positive and negative
predictive values. You will also consider examples of children with various
weight issues. You will explore how you could effectively gather information
and encourage parents and caregivers to be proactive about their children’s
health and weight.
To prepare:
Review this week’s learning resources and consider factors
that impact the validity and reliability of various assessment tools and
diagnostic tests. We will also review examples of pediatric patients and their
families as it relates to BMI.
This week you will be assigned one of the following DB by
your instructor.
Select one of the following assessment tools or diagnostic
tests to explore for the purposes of this Discussion:
Mammogram
Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test
Body-mass index (BMI) using waist circumference for adults
Select one of the examples on which to focus for this
Discussion. What health issues and risks may be relevant to the child you
selected?
Overweight 5-year-old boy with overweight parents
5-year-old girl of normal weight with obese parents
Severely underweight 12-year-old girl with underweight
parents
Search the Walden Library and credible sources for resources
explaining the tool or test you selected. What is its purpose, how is it
conducted, and what information does it gather?
What does the literature discuss regarding the validity,
reliability, and are there any issues with sensitivity, specificity, predictive
values, ethical dilemmas, and controversies related to the test or tool?
Based on the risks you identified, consider what further
information you would need to gain a full understanding of the child’s health.
Think about how you could gather this information in a sensitive fashion.
Consider how you could encourage parents or caregivers to be
proactive toward the child’s health.
By Day 3
Post a description of how the assessment tool or diagnostic
test you selected is used in health care. Based on your research, evaluate the
test or the tool’s validity and reliability, and explain any issues with
sensitivity, reliability, and predictive values. Include references in
appropriate APA formatting.
OR
Post an explanation of the health issues and risks that are
relevant to the child you selected. Describe additional information you would
need in order to further assess his or her weight-related health. Taking into
account the parents’ and caregivers’ potential sensitivities, list at least
three specific questions you would ask about the child to gather more
information. Provide at least two strategies you could employ to encourage the
parents or caregivers to be proactive about their child’s health and weight.
Note: For this Discussion, you are required to complete your
initial post before you will be able to view and respond to your colleagues’
postings. Begin by clicking on the “Post to Discussion Question” link
and then select “Create Thread” to complete your initial post.
Remember, once you click on Submit, you cannot delete or edit your own posts,
and you cannot post anonymously. Please check your post carefully before
clicking on Submit!
Read a selection of your colleagues’ responses.
By Day 6
Respond to at least two of your colleagues who selected a
different tool test, or child health example than you, using one or more of the
following approaches:
Critique your colleague’s evaluation of the validity and
reliability of the tool or test selected.
Suggest alternative or additional tools or tests that should
be considered when gathering information about specific conditions or symptoms.
Based on the risks you identified, consider what further
information you would need to gain a full understanding of the child’s health.
Think about how you could gather this information in a sensitive fashion.
Consider how you could encourage parents or caregivers to be
proactive toward the child’s health.
Suggest additional health risks or issues that could be
relevant to the child.
Critique your colleagues’ questions, and suggest how the parents
or caregivers might interpret these questions. Provide alternate or additional
questions.
Suggest an additional strategy for gathering patient
information or promoting proactivity

NURS6630 week 10 assignment

NURS6630 week 10 assignment

NURS6630 week 10 assignment.

week_10_Assessing_and_Treating_Clients_With_Dementia.docx (24.68 KB)

Week 10 assignment
Assignment: Assessing and Treating Clients With Dementia
The Alzheimer’s Association defines dementia as “a general
term for a decline in mental ability severe enough to interfere with daily
life” (Alzheimer’s Association, 2016). This term encompasses dozens of
cognitive disorders of impaired memory formation, recall, and communication.
The care and treatment of clients with dementia is dependent on multiple
factors, including the stage of dementia, comorbidities, family support, and
even the care setting. In your role, as the psychiatric mental health nurse
practitioner, you must be prepared to not only treat clients with these various
cognitive disorders, but also the multiple behavioral issues that often
accompany them. For this Assignment, as you examine the client case study in
this week’s Learning Resources, consider how you might assess and treat clients
presenting with dementia.
Reference: Alzheimer’s Association. (2016). What is
dementia? Retrieved from http://www.alz.org/what-is-dementia.asp
Learning Objectives
Students will:
Assess client factors and history to develop personalized
therapy plans for clients with dementia
Analyze factors that influence pharmacokinetic and
pharmacodynamic processes in clients requiring therapy for dementia
Evaluate efficacy of treatment plans
Analyze ethical and legal implications related to
prescribing therapy for clients with dementia
Learning Resources
Note: To access this week’s required library resources,
please click on the link to the Course Readings List, found in the Course
Materials section of your Syllabus.
Required Readings
Note: All Stahl
resources can be accessed through the Walden Library using this link. This link
will take you to a log-in page for the Walden Library. Once you log into the
library, the Stahl website will appear.
Stahl, S. M. (2013).
Stahl’s essential psychopharmacology: Neuroscientific basis and practical
applications (4th ed.). New York, NY: Cambridge University Press.
To access the following chapter, click on the Essential
Psychopharmacology, 4th ed tab on the Stahl Online website and select the
appropriate chapter. Be sure to read all sections on the left navigation bar
for each chapter.
Chapter 13, “Dementia and Its Treatment”
Stahl, S. M. (2014b). The prescriber’s guide (5th ed.). New
York, NY: Cambridge University Press.
To access information on the following medications, click on
The Prescriber’s Guide, 5th ed tab on the Stahl Online website and select the
appropriate medication.
Review the following medications:
For insomnia
donepezil
galantamine
memantine
rivastigmine
Bui, Q. (2012). Antidepressants for agitation and psychosis
in patients with dementia. American Family Physician, 85(1), 20–22. Retrieved
from http://www.aafp.org/journals/afp.html
Note: Retrieved from from the Walden Library databases.
Meltzer, H. Y.,
Mills, R., Revell, S., Williams, H., Johnson, A., Bahr, D., & Friedman, J.
H. (2010). Pimavanserin, a serotonin receptor inverse agonist for the treatment
of Parkinson’s disease psychosis. Neuropsychopharmacology, 35, 881–891.
Retrieved from http://www.nature.com/npp/journal/v35/n4/pdf/npp2009176a.pdf
Required Media
Laureate Education.
(2016h). Case study: An elderly Iranian man with Alzheimer’s disease
[Interactive media file]. Baltimore, MD: Author.
Note: This case study will serve as the foundation for this
week’s Assignment.
To prepare for this Assignment:
Review this week’s Learning Resources. Consider how to
assess and treat clients requiring therapy for dementia.
The Assignment
Examine Case Study: An Elderly Iranian Man With Alzheimer’s
Disease. You will be asked to make three decisions concerning the medication to
prescribe to this client. Be sure to consider factors that might impact the
client’s pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic processes.
At each decision point stop to complete the following:
Decision #1
Which decision did you select?
Why did you select this decision? Support your response with
evidence and references to the Learning Resources.
What were you hoping to achieve by making this decision?
Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.
Explain any difference between what you expected to achieve
with Decision #1 and the results of the decision. Why were they different?
Decision #2
Why did you select this decision? Support your response with
evidence and references to the Learning Resources.
What were you hoping to achieve by making this decision?
Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.
Explain any difference between what you expected to achieve
with Decision #2 and the results of the decision. Why were they different?
Decision #3
Why did you select this decision? Support your response with
evidence and references to the Learning Resources.
What were you hoping to achieve by making this decision?
Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.
Explain any difference between what you expected to achieve
with Decision #3 and the results of the decision. Why were they different?
Also include how ethical considerations might impact your
treatment plan and communication with clients.

NURS 6003 Week 11 Assignment:  Academic Success And Professional Development Plan Part 6- Finalizing The Plan

NURS 6003 Week 11 Assignment:  Academic Success And Professional Development Plan Part 6- Finalizing The Plan

NURS 6003 Week 11 Assignment:  Academic Success And Professional Development

SCORE A+ WITH HELP FROM OUR PROFESSIONAL WRITERS: ORDER NOW FOR AN ORIGINAL PAPER ASSIGNMENT ON NURS 6003 Week 11 Assignment:  Academic Success And Professional Development Plan Part 6- Finalizing The Plan

Academic Success And Professional Development Plan Part 6: Finalizing The Plan. Complete the following items and incorporate them into the final version of your Academic Success and Professional Development Plan.

  • With the resources specific to the MSN specialization and the, Walden University. (n.d.). Master of Science in Nursing (MSN), shared in this module, write a paragraph or make a Nursing Specialty Comparison table, comparing at least two nursing specialties that include your selected specialization and second-preferred specialization.
  • Write a 2- to 3-paragraph justification statement identifying your reasons for choosing your MSN specialization. Incorporate feedback you received from colleagues in this Module’s Discussion forum.

Identify the professional organization related to your chosen specialization for this Assignment, and explain how you can become an active member of this organization.

NURS 6501 Module 7 Pathophysiology Knowledge Check

NURS 6501 Module 7 Pathophysiology Knowledge Check

NURS 6501 Module 7 Pathophysiology Knowledge

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Your assignment woes end here!

Walden Module 7 Pathophysiology Knowledge Check. A 28-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a chief complaint of hirsutism and irregular menses. She describes irregular and infrequent menses (five or six per year) since menarche at 12 years of age. She began to develop dark, coarse facial hair when she was 14 years of age, but her parents did not seek treatment or medical opinion at that time. The symptoms worsened after she gained weight in college. She got married 3 years ago and has been trying to get pregnant for the last 2 years without success. Height 66 inches and weight 198. BMI 32 kg.m2. Moderate hirsutism without virilization noted.  Laboratory data reveal CMP within normal limits (WNL), CBC with manual differential (WNL), TSH 0.9 IU/L SI units (normal 0.4-4.0 IU/L SI units), a total testosterone of 65 ng/dl (normal 2.4-47 ng/dl), and glycated hemoglobin level of 6.1% (normal value ≤5.6%). Based on this information, the APRN diagnoses the patient with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) and refers her to the Women’s Health APRN for further workup and management.

Question 1 of 2:
What is the pathogenesis of PCOS?
Question 2 of 2:
How does PCOS affect a woman’s fertility or infertility?
Scenario 2: Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)
A 20-year-old female college student presents to the Student Health Clinic with a chief complaint of abdominal pain, foul smelling vaginal discharge, and fever and chills for the past 4 days. She denies nausea, vomiting, or difficulties with defecation. Last bowel movement this morning and was normal for her. Nothing has helped with the pain despite taking ibuprofen 200 mg orally several times a day. She describes the pain as sharp and localizes the pain to her lower abdomen. Past medical history noncontributory. GYN/Social history + for having had unprotected sex while at a fraternity party. Physical exam: thin, Ill appearing anxious looking white female who is moving around on the exam table and unable to find a comfortable position. Temperature 101.6F orally, pulse 120, respirations 22 and regular. Review of systems negative except for chief complaint. Focused assessment of abdomen demonstrated moderate pain to palpation left and right lower quadrants. Upper quadrants soft and non-tender. Bowel sounds diminished in bilateral lower quadrants. Pelvic exam demonstrated + adnexal tenderness, + cervical motion tenderness and copious amounts of greenish thick secretions. The APRN diagnoses the patient as having pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).
Question:
What is the pathophysiology of PID?
Scenario 3: Syphilis
A 27-year-old male comes to the clinic with a chief complaint of a “sore on my penis” that has been there for 3 days. He says it burns and leaked a little fluid. He denies any other symptoms. Past medical history noncontributory. Social history: works as a bartender and he states he often “hooks up” with some of the patrons, both male and female after work. He does not always use condoms. Physical exam within normal limits except for a lesion on the lateral side of the penis adjacent to the glans. The area is indurated with a small round raised lesion. The APRN orders laboratory tests, but feels the patient has syphilis.
Question:
Describe the 4 stages of syphilis
Scenario 4: Genital Herpes
A 19-year-old female presents to the clinic with a chief complaint of “fluid filled bumps” and intense pruritis of her vulva. She states these symptoms have been present for about 10 days, but she thought she had a yeast infection. She self-medicated with over the counter (OTC) metronidazole (Flagyl™) intravaginally but the symptoms got worse. No other complaints except for fatigue out of proportion to her activity level. Past medical history noncontributory. Social history: sexually active with several men and did forget to use a condom during one sexual encounter. Physical exam negative except for pelvic exam which revealed multiple fluid filled (vesicular) lesions on the vulva and introitus. Positive lymph nodes in inguinal areas. The APRN diagnoses the patient with herpes simplex virus-type 2 known as genital herpes.
Question:
What is the pathophysiology of HSV-2?
Scenario 5: Epididymitis
A 27-year-old male presents to the clinic with a chief complaint of a gradual onset of scrotal pain and swelling of the left testicle that started 2 days ago.  The pain has gotten progressively worse over the last 12 hours and he now complains of left flank pain. He complains of dysuria, frequency, and urgency with urination. He states his urine smells funny. He denies nausea, vomiting, but admits to urethral discharge just prior to the start of his severe symptoms. He denies any recent heavy lifting or straining for bowel movements. He says the only thing that makes the pain better is if he sits in his recliner and elevates his scrotum on a small pillow. Past medical history negative. Social history + for sexual activity only with his wife of 3 years. Physical exam reveals red, swollen left testicle that is very tender to touch. There is positive left inguinal adenopathy. Clean catch urinalysis in the clinic + for 3+ bacteria. The APRN diagnoses the patient with epididymitis.
Question:
Discuss how bacteria in the urine causes epididymitis.
Scenario 6: Prostatitis
A 42-year-old male presents to the clinic with a chief complaint of fever, chills, malaise, arthralgias, dysuria, urinary frequency, low back pain, perineal, and suprapubic pain. He says he feels like he can’t fully empty his bladder when he voids. He states these symptoms came on suddenly about 12 hours ago and have gotten worse. He noticed some blood in his urine the last time he voided. He tried to have a bowel movement several hours ago but could not empty his bowel due to pain. Past medical and social history noncontributory. Physical exam reveals an ill appearing male. Temperature 101.8 F, pulse 122, respirations 20, BP 108/68. Exam unremarkable apart from left costovertebral angle (CVA) tenderness. Rectal exam difficult due to enlarged and extremely painful prostate.  Complete blood count revealed an elevated white blood cell count, elevated C-reactive protein and elevated sedimentation rate. Urine dip in the clinic + for 2+ bacteria.
Question:
Explain the differences between acute bacterial prostatitis and nonbacterial prostatitis
Scenario 7: Endometriosis
A 32-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a chief complaint of pelvic pain, excessive menstrual bleeding, dyspareunia, and inability to become pregnant after 18 months of unprotected sex with her husband. She states she was told she had endometrioses after a high school physical exam, but no doctor or nurse practitioner ever mentioned it again, so she thought it had gone away. She has no other complaints and says she wants to have a family. Past medical history noncontributory except for possible endometriosis as a teenager. Social history negative for tobacco, drugs or alcohol. The physical exam is negative except for the pelvic exam which demonstrated pain on light and deep palpation of the uterus. The APRN believes that the patient does have endometriosis and orders appropriate laboratory and radiological tests. The diagnostics come back highly suggestive of endometriosis.
Question:
Explain how endometriosis may affect female fertility.
Scenario 8: Platelets
An APRN working in an anticoagulation clinic has been asked by the local college to present a lecture on platelets and their role in blood clotting to the graduate pathophysiology nursing students.
Question:
What key concepts should the APRN include in the presentation?
Scenario 9: Iron Deficient Anemia (IDA)
A 36-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of dyspnea on exertion, fatigue, leg cramps on climbing stairs, craving ice to suck or chew and cold intolerance. The symptoms have come on gradually over the past 4 months. The only thing that make the symptoms better is for her to sit or lie down and stop the activity. She denies bruising or bleeding and states this is the first time this has happened. Past medical history noncontributory except for a new diagnosis of benign uterine fibroids 6 months ago after experiencing heavy menstrual bleeding every month. Social history noncontributory and she denies alcohol, tobacco, or drug use. Physical exam: pale, thin, Caucasian female who appears older than stated age. Physical exam remarkable for a soft I/IV systolic murmur, pallor of the mucous membranes, spoon-shaped nails (koilonychia), glossy tongue, with atrophy of the lingual papillae, and fissures at the corners of the mouth. The APRN suspects the patient has iron deficient anemia (IDA) secondary to excessive blood loss from uterine fibroids. The appropriate laboratory tests confirmed the diagnosis.
Question:
Discuss iron deficiency anemia and how the patient’s menstrual bleeding contributed to the diagnosis.
Scenario 10: Pernicious Anemia
A 67-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of weakness, fatigue, paresthesias of the feet and fingers, difficulty walking, loss of appetite, and a sore tongue. These symptoms have been present for several months but the patient thought they were due to her recent retirement and geographic move from the Midwest to New England. The symptoms have gotten worse over the past few weeks and she has noticed that she is much more forgetful. This is of great concern as she worries she might have the beginning stages of Alzheimer’s Disease. Past medical history significant for Hashimoto thyroiditis that she developed in her early 20s. The rest of PMH and social history non- contributory. Physical exam reveals an average sized female whose skin has a sallow appearance. BP 128/74, Pulse 120, respirations 18 and temperature 99.0F orally. Examination of the head and neck reveals a smooth and beefy red tongue. Abdominal exam negative for hepatomegaly or splenomegaly.
The APRN recognizes these symptoms and physical exam indicate the patient has pernicious anemia. After appropriate laboratory data received, the definitive diagnosis of pernicious anemia was made.
Question 1 of 2:
How does pernicious anemia develop?
Question 2 of 2:
How does pernicious anemia cause the neurological manifestations that are often seen in patients with PA?
Scenario 11: Anemia of Chronic Disease (ACD)
A 49-year-old man with a 22-year history of severe rheumatoid arthritis (RA) presents to clinic for his preadmission testing (PAT) and medical clearance for a planned right total hip arthroplasty. The patient had been severely limited in ambulation due to the RA. Current medications include prednisone 20 mg po qd and methotrexate 7.5 mg Thursdays, 5mg Fridays, and 7.5 mg Saturdays.  The patient had a complete blood count (CBC) with manual differentiation and red blood cell indices, complete metabolic panel (CMP) and coagulation studies (prothrombin time [PT], international normalized ratio [INR] and activated partial thromboplastin time [aPTT]). All the laboratory studies come back within normal limits except for the red blood cell indices. The hemoglobin and hematocrit were low along with mean corpuscle volume, plasma iron and total iron binding capacity, and transferrin also being low. There was a normal reticulocyte count, normal ferritin, serum B12, folate and bilirubin.
The APRN in the PAT clinic recognizes that the patient has anemia of chronic disease (ACD).
Question 1 of 2:
What is ACD and how does it develop?
Question 2 of 2:
Why do patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) develop ACD?
Scenario 12: Immune Thrombocytopenia Purpura (ITP)
A 14-year-old female is brought to the Urgent Care by her mother who states that the girl has had an abnormal number of bruises and “funny looking red splotches” on her legs. These bruises were first noticed about 2 weeks ago and are not related to trauma. Past medical history not remarkable and she takes no medications. The mother does state the girl is recovering from a “bad case of mono” and was on bedrest at home for the past 3 weeks. The girl noticed that her gums were slightly bleeding when she brushed her teeth that morning.
Labs at Urgent Care demonstrated normal hemoglobin and hematocrit with normal white blood cell (WBC) differential. Platelet count of 100,000/mm3 was the only abnormal finding. The staff also noticed that the venipuncture site oozed for a few minutes after pressure was released. The doctor at Urgent Care referred the patient and her mother to the ED for a complete work up of the low platelet count including a peripheral blood smear for suspected immune thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP).
Question:
What is ITP and why do you think this patient has acute, rather than chronic, ITP?
Scenario 13: Heparin Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT)
A 22-year-old male is in the Surgical Intensive Care Unit (SICU) following a motor vehicle crash (MVC) where he sustained multiple life-threatening injuries including a torn aorta, ruptured spleen, and bilateral femur fractures. He has had difficulty maintaining his mean arterial pressure (MAP) and has required various vasopressors. He has a triple lumen central venous catheter (CVC) for monitoring his central venous pressure, administration of medications and blood products, as well as total parenteral nutrition. Per hospital protocol, he is receiving an unfractionated heparin 1:1000 flush after administration of each of the triple antibiotics that have been ordered to maintain patency of the lumens.  Seven days post injury, the APRN in the SICU is reviewing the patient’s morning labs and notes that his platelet count has dropped precipitously to 50,000 /mm3 from 148,000/mm3 two days ago. The APRN suspects the patient is developing heparin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT).
Question 1 of 2:
What is underlying pathophysiology of heparin induced thrombocytopenia?
Question 2 of 2:
The APRN assesses the patient and notes there is a decreased right posterior tibial pulse with cyanosis of the entire foot. The APRN recognizes this probably represents arterial thrombus formation. How does someone who is receiving heparin develop arterial and venous thrombosis?
Scenario 14: Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP)
A 33-year-old female is brought to Urgent Care by her husband who states his wife has gotten suddenly confused and complains of a severe headache. He also noticed large bruises on her legs which were not there yesterday. Only significant past medical history is that the patient developed herpes zoster 2 weeks ago and was given acyclovir for treatment. Physical exam revealed well developed female who is only oriented to person. Large areas of ecchymosis noted on both arms and legs. Stat CBC revealed a platelet count of 18,000/mm3, hemoglobin of 8 g/dl and hematocrit of 24%. The patient was immediately transported to the Emergency Room by Emergency Medical Services (EMS) where further work up demonstrated idiopathic thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP).
Question:
What is the pathophysiology of TTP?
Scenario 15: Heparin Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT)
A 64-year man is recovering from a transurethral resection of the prostate for treatment of benign prostate hyperplasia. The patient is receiving intravenous antibiotics for the urinary tract infection that was found on the preoperative urine culture and sensitivity (C & S). The post-operative course has been smooth and the APRN is removing the 3-way Foley catheter when there is a sudden release of bright red blood with many blood clots in the Foley bag. The patient becomes hypotensive, tachycardic and the APRN notes new ecchymoses on the patient’s arms and legs. The patient was immediately transferred to the surgical intensive care unit (SICU) and a stat hematology consult was conducted. Stat CBC, d-dimer, peripheral blood smear, partial thromboplastin time, Prothrombin time/international normalization ratio (INR), and fibrinogen labs were drawn. Results were:
CBC with markedly decreased platelet count, peripheral blood smear showed decreased number of platelets and presence of large platelets and fragmented red cells (schistocytes), prothrombin time prolonged as was the partial thromboplastin time. The d-dimer was markedly elevated, and fibrinogen level was low. The diagnosis of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) was made based on clinical picture and laboratory data.
Question 1 of 2:
What is DIC and how does it develop?
Question 2 of 2:
What factors contribute to the development of DIC?

NURS-6512 Week 4 Assignment: Differential Diagnosis For Skin Conditions

NURS-6512 Week 4 Assignment: Differential Diagnosis For Skin Conditions

NURS-6512 Week 4 Assignment: Differential Diagnosis

Differential Diagnosis For Skin Conditions. Your soap note template can also be found in the resource under week 4 which is to the right of the page. One can chose which ever picture. Download the SOAP Template found in this week’s Learning Resources, and use this template to complete this Lab Assignment.

The Lab Assignment

  • Choose one skin condition graphic (identify by number in your Chief Complaint) to document your assignment in the SOAP (Subjective, Objective, Assessment, and Plan) note format rather than the traditional narrative style. Refer to Chapter 2 of the Sullivan text and the Comprehensive SOAP Template in this week’s Learning Resources for guidance. Remember that not all comprehensive SOAP data are included in every patient case.
  • Use clinical terminologies to explain the physical characteristics featured in the graphic. Formulate a differential diagnosis of three to five possible conditions for the skin graphic that you chose. Determine which is most likely to be the correct diagnosis and explain your reasoning using at least three different references, one reference from current evidence-based literature from your search and two different references from this week’s Learning Resources. Also, please access your grading rubric..
By Day 7 of Week 4

soap note template.docx
Properly identifying the cause and type of a patient’s skin condition involves a process of elimination known as differential diagnosis. Using this process, a health professional can take a given set of physical abnormalities, vital signs, health assessment findings, and patient descriptions of symptoms, and incrementally narrow them down until one diagnosis is determined as the most likely cause.
In this Lab Assignment, you will examine several visual representations of various skin conditions, describe your observations, and use the techniques of differential diagnosis to determine the most likely condition.

To Prepare

  • Review the Skin Conditions document provided in this week’s Learning Resources, and select one condition to closely examine for this Lab Assignment.
  • Consider the abnormal physical characteristics you observe in the graphic you selected. How would you describe the characteristics using clinical terminologies?
  • Explore different conditions that could be the cause of the skin abnormalities in the graphics you selected.
  • Consider which of the conditions is most likely to be the correct diagnosis, and why.
  • Search the Walden library for one evidence-based practice, peer-reviewed article based on the skin condition you chose for this Lab Assignment.
  • Review the Comprehensive SOAP Exemplar found in this week’s Learning Resources to guide you as you prepare your SOAP note.
  • Download the SOAP Template found in this week’s Learning Resources, and use this template to complete this Lab Assignment.

The Lab Assignment

  • Choose one skin condition graphic (identify by number in your Chief Complaint) to document your assignment in the SOAP (Subjective, Objective, Assessment, and Plan) note format rather than the traditional narrative style. Refer to Chapter 2 of the Sullivan text and the Comprehensive SOAP Template in this week’s Learning Resources for guidance. Remember that not all comprehensive SOAP data are included in every patient case.

Use clinical terminologies to explain the physical characteristics featured in the graphic. Formulate a differential diagnosis of three to five possible conditions for the skin graphic that you chose. Determine which is most likely to be the correct diagnosis and explain your reasoning using at least three different references, one reference from current evidence-based literature from your search and two different references from this week’s Learning Resources.

Evidence-Based Project

Evidence-Based Project

NURS 6052 Evidence-Based. I need a detailed work with scholarly article with doi numbers or walden uni. 10 % playgrism

Assignment: Evidence-Based Project, Part 4: Recommending an Evidence-Based Practice Change
The collection of evidence is an activity that occurs with an endgame in mind. For example, law enforcement professionals collect evidence to support a decision to charge those accused of criminal activity. Similarly, evidence-based healthcare practitioners collect evidence to support decisions in pursuit of specific healthcare outcomes.
In this Assignment, you will identify an issue or opportunity for change within your healthcare organization and propose an idea for a change in practice supported by an EBP approach.
To Prepare:

  • Reflect on the four peer-reviewed articles you critically appraised in Module 4, related to your clinical topic of interest and PICOT.
  • Reflect on your current healthcare organization and think about potential opportunities for evidence-based change, using your topic of interest and PICOT as the basis for your reflection.
  • Consider the best method of disseminating the results of your presentation to an audience.

The Assignment: (Evidence-Based Project)
Part 4: Recommending an Evidence-Based Practice Change
Create an 8- to 9-slide PowerPoint presentation in which you do the following:

  • Briefly describe your healthcare organization, including its culture and readiness for change. (You may opt to keep various elements of this anonymous, such as your company name.)
  • Describe the current problem or opportunity for change. Include in this description the circumstances surrounding the need for change, the scope of the issue, the stakeholders involved, and the risks associated with change implementation in general.
  • Propose an evidence-based idea for a change in practice using an EBP approach to decision making. Note that you may find further research needs to be conducted if sufficient evidence is not discovered.
  • Describe your plan for knowledge transfer of this change, including knowledge creation, dissemination, and organizational adoption and implementation.
  • Explain how you would disseminate the results of your project to an audience. Provide a rationale for why you selected this dissemination strategy.
  • Describe the measurable outcomes you hope to achieve with the implementation of this evidence-based change.
  • Be sure to provide APA citations of the supporting evidence-based peer reviewed articles you selected to support your thinking.
  • Add a lessons learned section that includes the following:
    • A summary of the critical appraisal of the peer-reviewed articles you previously submitted

An explanation about what you learned from completing the Evaluation Table within the Critical Appraisal Tool Worksheet Template (1-3 slides)

NURS 8100 Week 6: Individual Right Versus The Collective Good

NURS 8100 Week 6: Individual Right Versus The Collective Good

NURS 8100 Week 6: Individual Right Versus The Collective Good

 Most of the recent successes in improving the public’4 s health has had to address the tension of individual rights versus the collective good. Anti-smoking campaigns and laws banning smoking in public places protect people from the negative health effects of second-hand smoke, yet some believe that they infringe on the individual rights of those who choose to smoke. Requiring childhood immunizations has helped prevent diseases such as polio and measles, but some parents assert that they have the right to decide if being immunized is in the best interest of their children.

This tension also exists in the allocation of scarce resources, from providing adequate staff coverage to making decisions about the amount of health care to provide. Given the nurse’s involvement in policy and health care delivery, it is important to understand the dynamics of this tension, as well as the legal and ethical implications.
To prepare:

  • When      have you encountered a tension between the individual right and the      collective good in your nursing practice?
  • With      information from the Learning Resources in mind, consider relatively      recent examples of health care policy that demonstrate this tension. For      this Discussion, select one example of timely health care policy that      allows you to evaluate the tension between individual rights and the      collective good. Conduct additional research as necessary using credible      websites and the Walden Library.

By tomorrow 04/04/2018 3pm, write a minimum of 550 words in APA format with at least 3 scholarly references from the list of required readings below. Include the level one headings as numbered below”
Post a cohesive response that addresses the following:

  • In      the first line of your posting, identify a health care policy.
  • Explain      the tension between individual rights and the collective good.

Analyze      the ethical and legal considerations of the policy.